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Prosthodontics Prometric exam questions with answers

15 original practice questions written to the Prosthodontics exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the Prosthodontics exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP and every other GCC regulator, from their own published rules.

15
Free questions
60%
DHA pass mark
150
Questions on the DHA exam
12
Questions in the free mock

Quick answer

The Prosthodontics exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours at DHA (pass mark 60%) and 150 MCQs in 3 hours at QCHP (pass mark 65%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 12-question timed mock.

The Prosthodontics exam in every GCC country

DHA, QCHP publish an exact Prosthodontics exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.

Prosthodontics licensing exam in every GCC country
RegulatorExamFormatPass markFee per attemptPractise
DHA
Dubai
Specialist Prosthodontics (PRO5051)150 MCQs in 3 hours60%USD 280 (about AED 1,030)DHA questions →
DOH
Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra
DOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Written + oral/OSCEPass / fail onlyNot publishedDOH questions →
MOHAP
Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah
MOHAP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-basedNot publishedNot publishedMOHAP questions →
SHA
Emirate of Sharjah
SHA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Set at assessmentNot publishedNot publishedSHA questions →
SCFHS
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
SCFHS licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
200 MCQs, 240 min500-560 of 800Not publishedSCFHS questions →
QCHP
State of Qatar
Specialist Prosthodontics150 MCQs in 3 hours65%Not publishedQCHP questions →
NHRA
Kingdom of Bahrain
NHRA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Prometric CBTNot publishedNot publishedNHRA questions →
OMSB
Sultanate of Oman
OMSB licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-based OC examNot publishedNot publishedOMSB questions →
Kuwait MOH
State of Kuwait
Kuwait MOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
150 MCQs, 170 min60-70%Not publishedKuwait MOH questions →

exact exam published for Prosthodontics

Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.

15 Prosthodontics exam questions with answers

Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.

  1. Question 1Complete denturesmedium

    At try-in, which speech sounds are best used to check the incisal edge position of maxillary anterior teeth against the lower lip?

    1. AS and Z sounds
    2. BT and D sounds
    3. CM and B sounds
    4. DF and V sounds
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. F and V sounds

    F and V are labiodental sounds where the maxillary incisal edges should lightly contact the wet-dry line of the lower lip. S sounds are mainly used to assess the closest speaking space and vertical dimension.

  2. Question 2Dental materials and laboratory procedureshard

    For a durable metal-ceramic restoration, how should the coefficient of thermal expansion of the alloy relate to that of the porcelain?

    1. AMuch lower, placing porcelain in tension
    2. BSlightly higher, placing porcelain in compression
    3. CExactly equal to eliminate residual stress
    4. DIrrelevant, as bonding is purely mechanical
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Slightly higher, placing porcelain in compression

    An alloy with a slightly higher coefficient contracts more on cooling, leaving the porcelain under residual compression, which it resists well. Porcelain is weak in tension, and the bond relies largely on the oxide layer, not only mechanical retention.

  3. Question 3Dental materials and laboratory proceduresmedium

    Why should casts be poured promptly from a condensation silicone impression?

    1. AEthanol by-product evaporates, causing shrinkage
    2. BWater absorption causes swelling
    3. CHydrogen gas release causes bubbles
    4. DSulphur by-product causes surface softening
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Ethanol by-product evaporates, causing shrinkage

    Condensation silicones release ethanol during setting, and its evaporation causes ongoing shrinkage, so casts should be poured soon. Hydrogen release occurs with some addition silicones and is managed by delayed pouring or palladium scavengers.

  4. Question 4Dental materials and laboratory proceduresmedium

    A heat-cured acrylic denture shows internal porosity confined to the thickest part of the base. What is the most likely cause?

    1. AInsufficient packing pressure
    2. BExcess polymer in the mix
    3. CCuring temperature raised too rapidly
    4. DToo long a bench cooling time
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Curing temperature raised too rapidly

    Rapid heating raises the temperature in thick sections above the boiling point of monomer (about 100.8 degrees C), causing gaseous porosity in the bulk of the base. Inadequate packing pressure causes more widespread, irregular porosity.

  5. Question 5Infection control, ethics and patient safetyeasy

    An alginate impression has just been removed from a patient's mouth. What is the correct infection control step before sending it to the laboratory?

    1. ASeal it dry in a bag and send it without treatment
    2. BAutoclave it at 134 degrees C before dispatch
    3. CSoak it in tap water for one hour before dispatch
    4. DRinse, then disinfect with a compatible disinfectant
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Rinse, then disinfect with a compatible disinfectant

    Impressions should be rinsed to remove saliva and blood and then disinfected with a disinfectant compatible with the material, following the manufacturer's contact time. Heat sterilisation destroys alginate, and prolonged immersion causes distortion.

  6. Question 6Diagnosis, treatment planning and occlusionmedium

    In a mutually protected occlusion in a dentate patient, which statement is correct?

    1. APosterior teeth contact on both sides during excursions
    2. BAll teeth contact evenly in lateral excursions
    3. CCanines are kept out of contact in all movements
    4. DAnterior teeth disclude the posterior teeth in excursions
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Anterior teeth disclude the posterior teeth in excursions

    In mutually protected occlusion, posterior teeth support the bite in maximum intercuspation and anterior teeth (canine and incisor guidance) disclude the posterior teeth in excursions. Bilateral posterior contact in excursions describes balanced occlusion used in complete dentures.

  7. Question 7Maxillofacial prosthetics and temporomandibular disordershard

    A patient after a stroke has a soft palate of normal length but poor movement, causing hypernasal speech. Which prosthesis is most appropriate?

    1. ASpeech bulb obturator
    2. BPalatal lift prosthesis
    3. CComplete denture with thick palate
    4. DNasal stent
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Palatal lift prosthesis

    Velopharyngeal incompetence with adequate tissue but poor movement is managed with a palatal lift that elevates the soft palate. A speech bulb fills a tissue deficiency, as in insufficiency after cleft or surgical loss.

  8. Question 8Removable partial dentureseasy

    A mandibular partial denture is planned. The distance from the gingival margin to the floor of the mouth is 5 mm. Which major connector is indicated?

    1. ALingual plate
    2. BLingual bar
    3. CSublingual bar
    4. DLabial bar
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Lingual plate

    A lingual bar needs adequate vertical space (commonly about 8 mm) for the bar and clearance from the gingival margin. With limited depth, a lingual plate is indicated.

Halfway - how are you scoring?

Test yourself under real exam conditions

The free 12-question mock is timed and scored against the pass mark, domain by domain, so you see exactly where you are losing marks. The full Prosthodontics bank has 3 full-length papers (about 450 questions) for AED 289, one-time.

  1. Question 9Fixed prosthodonticsmedium

    When preparing a post space in a root-filled tooth, how much apical gutta-percha should be retained?

    1. A1 mm
    2. B10 mm
    3. C4 to 5 mm
    4. DNone if the post is cemented
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. 4 to 5 mm

    Retaining about 4 to 5 mm of apical gutta-percha maintains the apical seal while allowing an adequate post length. Leaving less risks leakage and periapical disease.

  2. Question 10Implant prosthodonticsmedium

    Which occlusal principle is recommended for a single posterior implant crown?

    1. ANarrow occlusal table and reduced cusp inclination
    2. BHeavy contacts to stimulate bone
    3. CWide occlusal table to spread load
    4. DGroup function contacts in all excursions
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Narrow occlusal table and reduced cusp inclination

    Implants lack a periodontal ligament, so implant-protected occlusion reduces lateral loads through a narrower occlusal table, shallow cusps and light contacts. Heavy or wide contacts increase bending forces on the implant.

  3. Question 11Infection control, ethics and patient safetymedium

    A 30-year-old with healthy, sound teeth requests 20 full-coverage zirconia crowns to whiten her smile. What is the most appropriate response?

    1. AExplain risks and offer less invasive options such as whitening
    2. BProceed, as the patient has requested it
    3. CPrepare the teeth but advise against it in writing
    4. DRefer to a colleague who will do the crowns
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Explain risks and offer less invasive options such as whitening

    Extensive preparation of sound teeth carries risks of pulp damage and long-term failure, and the clinician should explain these and offer conservative alternatives. The duty to act in the patient's best interest means a clinician may decline unnecessary invasive treatment.

  4. Question 12Maxillofacial prosthetics and temporomandibular disordersmedium

    A patient is to undergo partial maxillectomy. When is the definitive obturator usually made?

    1. AAt the time of the resection, in the operating room
    2. BOne week after surgery, when the packing is removed
    3. CBefore surgery, from preoperative casts of the maxilla
    4. DAfter healing and tissue stability, often 3 to 6 months
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. After healing and tissue stability, often 3 to 6 months

    A surgical obturator is placed at surgery, an interim obturator follows during healing, and a definitive obturator is made once tissues have healed and stabilised, usually after several months. Early definitive prostheses fit poorly as the defect changes.

  5. Question 13Removable partial denturesmedium

    A patient is missing maxillary right first and second molars and the left first premolar. Third molars are absent and will not be replaced. All other teeth are present. What is the Kennedy classification?

    1. AClass I, modification 1
    2. BClass III, modification 1
    3. CClass IV
    4. DClass II, modification 1
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Class II, modification 1

    The most posterior edentulous area determines the class: a unilateral free-end saddle makes this Class II, and the additional bounded space is modification 1. Class I would need bilateral free-end saddles.

  6. Question 14Removable partial denturesmedium

    In the RPI clasp system on the terminal abutment of a distal extension partial denture, where is the occlusal rest placed?

    1. AOn the distal of the abutment
    2. BOn the buccal surface of the abutment
    3. COn the cingulum of the canine only
    4. DOn the mesial of the abutment
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. On the mesial of the abutment

    The RPI system uses a mesial rest, distal proximal plate and buccal I-bar, so that the clasp disengages when the saddle is loaded, reducing torque on the abutment. A distal rest would tip the abutment distally.

  7. Question 15Removable partial denturesmedium

    Where should an indirect retainer be placed for a mandibular Kennedy Class I partial denture?

    1. ADirectly on the fulcrum line
    2. BDistal to the fulcrum line
    3. CAs far anterior to the fulcrum line as possible
    4. DOn the residual ridge under the saddle
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. As far anterior to the fulcrum line as possible

    An indirect retainer resists rotation of the distal extension away from the tissues about the fulcrum line, and its effectiveness increases with distance anterior to that line. A rest on the fulcrum line gives no leverage.

What the Prosthodontics exam covers

The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.

Diagnosis, treatment planning and occlusion

~15%

Centric relation, maximum intercuspation and jaw relation records · Vertical dimension of occlusion and interocclusal rest space · Facebow transfer and articulator selection and programming

Complete dentures

~15%

Impression techniques and border moulding · Posterior palatal seal · Tooth arrangement, phonetics and aesthetics

Removable partial dentures

~12%

Kennedy classification and Applegate's rules · Rests, rest seats and guide planes · Clasp design

Fixed prosthodontics

~15%

Tooth preparation principles · Ferrule effect and post and core design · Abutment evaluation

Dental materials and laboratory procedures

~12%

Elastomeric impression materials · Gypsum products and die materials · Metal-ceramic bonding and thermal expansion

Implant prosthodontics

~15%

Implant treatment planning, spacing and bone volume · Implant overdentures for the edentulous mandible · Screw-retained versus cement-retained restorations

Maxillofacial prosthetics and temporomandibular disorders

~8%

Maxillectomy obturators · Velopharyngeal dysfunction · Prosthodontic care of head and neck cancer patients

Infection control, ethics and patient safety

~8%

Disinfection of impressions and prostheses · Communication between clinic and dental laboratory · Informed consent and overtreatment

How to answer these questions

1

Diagnosis questions hinge on one or two discriminating findings - pick them out of the stem before reading the options.

2

Know the order of treatment planning cold: emergency relief, disease control, then restorative and prosthetic phases.

3

Infection control, radiation safety and ethics are short, high-yield marks - do not skip them in revision.

4

Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.

Prosthodontics exam questions: FAQs

How many questions are in the Prosthodontics Prometric exam?
It depends on the regulator: DHA 150 MCQs in 3 hours; QCHP 150 MCQs in 3 hours. The full table above lists every GCC regulator.
What is the pass mark for the Prosthodontics exam?
DHA: 60%; QCHP: 65%. Pass marks are set exam by exam, so use your own regulator's figure.
Are these real exam questions?
No. Regulators do not release their papers, and anything sold as a leaked paper is unofficial and risky to rely on. These are original questions written to the official exam blueprint, at the level and in the style of the real exam, each with a worked explanation.
Is the Prosthodontics exam the same in every GCC country?
The clinical content is broadly similar because the exams test the same safe practice, but the format, length, pass mark, attempts and fees differ by regulator. Prepare on the content once, then check your regulator's exact rules before you book.
How should I use these questions?
Answer each one before opening the explanation, and note why each wrong option is wrong. Then take the free 12-question timed mock to see your score against the pass mark, and move to full-length papers when you score comfortably above it.

Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.

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