General Dentist Prometric exam questions

The General Dentist exam in every GCC country

From each regulator's own exam pages; anything a regulator does not publish says so. Assessment mode also depends on your licence title, so confirm your route on your eligibility notice.

12 worked Dentist (General) practice questions

Original exam-style questions from the bank, spread across the blueprint domains. They are not real or recalled exam questions. Try each one, then open the answer for the rationale and reference. None of them appear in the free mock exam, so reading them will not spoil it.

1. Question 1 · Restorative Dentistry (Operative Dentistry & Prosthodontics)

   A patient has a 2 mm midline diastema and wishes for a minimally invasive esthetic closure with direct composite. Which planning consideration most reduces the risk of an unnatural, overly wide 'square' appearance of the closed central incisors?

   1. AClose the entire space on a single central incisor to save chair time
   2. BDistribute the added width between both central incisors and manage the emergence profile and interproximal contour to maintain proper width-to-length proportions
   3. CExtend the composite well below the gingival margin to bulk out the cervical area
   4. DReduce the incisal length of both centrals to compensate for the added width
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. Distribute the added width between both central incisors and manage the emergence profile and interproximal contour to maintain proper width-to-length proportions

   Splitting the added width symmetrically between the two central incisors and carefully contouring the proximal emergence profile preserves natural width-to-length proportions and avoids a boxy look, and controlled contours support gingival health of the interdental papilla. Closing on a single tooth creates asymmetry and disproportion. Overextending composite subgingivally or shortening incisal length distorts proportions and can inflame the gingiva.

   Reference: Fradeani M. Esthetic Rehabilitation in Fixed Prosthodontics, 2004; Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th ed., 2019

2. Question 2 · Endodontics

   The crown-down instrumentation technique reduces the risk of certain procedural errors mainly because it:

   1. AUses only a single file to the apex from the start
   2. BRequires no irrigation between files
   3. CRemoves coronal interferences and debris first, reducing apical extrusion and improving straight-line access before apical enlargement
   4. DEliminates the need for working length determination
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C. Removes coronal interferences and debris first, reducing apical extrusion and improving straight-line access before apical enlargement

   In crown-down, larger instruments enlarge the coronal and middle thirds first, removing coronal dentin interferences and debris before the apex is reached; this decreases apical extrusion of debris, reduces file binding/stress, and provides better tactile control and access to the apical constriction. It still requires irrigation and accurate working length, and is not a single-file-to-apex approach.

   Reference: Cohen's Pathways of the Pulp, 12th ed. (2021); Ingle's Endodontics 7th ed.

3. Question 3 · Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery

   A trauma patient has midface mobility. When the maxillary alveolus and palate move as a single block separated from the upper face at the level of the nasal floor and maxillary sinuses (a horizontal fracture above the teeth), the injury is classified as:

   1. ALe Fort I
   2. BLe Fort II
   3. CLe Fort III
   4. DZygomaticomaxillary complex fracture
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. Le Fort I

   A Le Fort I fracture is a horizontal fracture separating the tooth-bearing maxillary segment (alveolus and palate) from the upper midface above the apices of the teeth. Le Fort II is pyramidal involving the nasal bridge and infraorbital rims, Le Fort III is craniofacial disjunction through the orbits and zygomatic arches, and a ZMC fracture involves the cheekbone complex specifically.

   Reference: Le Fort classification (1901); Fonseca's Oral and Maxillofacial Trauma, 4th ed.

4. Question 4 · Orthodontics

   An anterior crossbite of a single upper incisor is detected in a 7-year-old with adequate overbite and space. The most appropriate interceptive treatment is:

   1. AAn upper removable appliance with a Z-spring (or inclined bite plane) to procline the incisor over the bite
   2. BExtraction of the affected incisor
   3. CDeferring all treatment until the permanent dentition is complete
   4. DFixed appliances across both arches
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. An upper removable appliance with a Z-spring (or inclined bite plane) to procline the incisor over the bite

   A localized anterior crossbite with sufficient space and overbite is ideally corrected early with a simple removable appliance using a Z-spring (with posterior capping) to tip the incisor labially, avoiding abnormal wear and gingival recession. Extraction is inappropriate, delaying treatment can worsen the problem, and full fixed appliances are unnecessary for a single-tooth tipping movement.

   Reference: Mitchell L, An Introduction to Orthodontics, 5th ed., 2013

5. Question 5 · Infection Control, Patient Safety, Ethics & Professionalism

   Regarding operator protection during dental radiography, what is the recommended practice for the operator's position when making an exposure with a wall-mounted intraoral unit?

   1. AStand at least about 2 metres (6 feet) away, and/or behind a protective barrier, out of the primary beam
   2. BHold the film/sensor in the patient's mouth to ensure stability
   3. CStand directly beside the tube head in the path of the beam
   4. DStay in the room only if not pregnant, position irrelevant
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. Stand at least about 2 metres (6 feet) away, and/or behind a protective barrier, out of the primary beam

   Operators should stand at least about 2 metres away and at 90-135 degrees to the primary beam, ideally behind a barrier or wall, and never hold the receptor or be in the primary beam. Holding the sensor exposes the hand to the primary beam, and standing in the beam path is unsafe regardless of pregnancy status. Distance, position and shielding are the key operator-protection measures.

   Reference: NCRP Report No. 145, Radiation Protection in Dentistry, 2003; ADA radiographic safety guidance

6. Question 6 · Periodontics

   During a maintenance visit, a previously stable site now shows increased probing depth from 4 mm to 7 mm with bleeding on probing and radiographic bone loss. According to accepted maintenance protocols, what is the most appropriate response?

   1. AContinue the same recall interval and reassess in 12 months
   2. BPerform site-specific re-treatment (re-instrumentation) and consider referral or shortening the recall interval
   3. CExtract the tooth immediately
   4. DPrescribe long-term systemic antibiotics indefinitely
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. Perform site-specific re-treatment (re-instrumentation) and consider referral or shortening the recall interval

   Recurrence at a specific site during maintenance warrants localized re-treatment (re-instrumentation/scaling and root planing), reassessment, and consideration of a shortened recall interval or specialist referral. Simply continuing the same interval ignores active disease, immediate extraction is premature for a treatable site, and indefinite systemic antibiotics are not an appropriate substitute for mechanical therapy.

   Reference: AAP Position Paper on Periodontal Maintenance, J Periodontol 2003; Newman & Carranza's Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed.

7. Question 7 · Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology & Diagnostic Sciences

   A patient with poorly controlled diabetes and a history of dental extraction develops rapidly progressive necrosis of the palate with a black eschar and facial pain. Biopsy shows broad, non-septate hyphae branching at right angles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

   1. AInvasive aspergillosis
   2. BMucormycosis (zygomycosis)
   3. CActinomycosis
   4. DSquamous cell carcinoma
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. Mucormycosis (zygomycosis)

   Broad, aseptate hyphae branching at wide (right) angles causing necrotic black palatal eschar in an uncontrolled diabetic is diagnostic of mucormycosis, an angioinvasive fungal infection. Aspergillus shows narrow septate hyphae with acute-angle branching, actinomycosis shows sulfur granules, and carcinoma lacks fungal hyphae.

   Reference: Neville et al., Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th ed., 2016

8. Question 8 · Pediatric Dentistry

   The Hall technique is being used to manage a carious primary molar in an anxious child. Which statement about this technique is correct?

   1. AA preformed metal crown is cemented over the carious tooth without caries removal or preparation
   2. BIt requires complete caries removal before crown placement
   3. CIt requires local anesthesia and tooth preparation
   4. DIt is indicated only for teeth with irreversible pulpitis
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. A preformed metal crown is cemented over the carious tooth without caries removal or preparation

   The Hall technique seals a stainless steel crown over a carious primary molar without caries removal, tooth preparation, or local anesthesia, sealing the biofilm and arresting the lesion. It is contraindicated in teeth with signs of irreversible pulpitis or pulp involvement, and its whole premise is that no caries removal or preparation is performed.

   Reference: AAPD Best Practices: Pediatric Restorative Dentistry (2023); Innes et al., Hall Technique research

9. Question 9 · Common Foundations: Local Anesthesia, Pharmacology, Pain & Medical Emergencies

   During a conventional inferior alveolar nerve block, which bony landmark should the needle contact before depositing solution, and roughly where should the needle tip lie?

   1. AThe medial (lingual) aspect of the ramus near the mandibular foramen, ~2-3 mm after contacting bone
   2. BThe coronoid process, with no bone contact needed
   3. CThe mylohyoid ridge on the lingual surface of the mandible
   4. DThe external oblique ridge, contacting bone immediately
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. The medial (lingual) aspect of the ramus near the mandibular foramen, ~2-3 mm after contacting bone

   In the standard IAN block the needle is advanced until it contacts the medial surface of the ramus near the mandibular foramen (usually ~20-25 mm), then withdrawn ~1 mm before depositing solution after aspiration, targeting the nerve as it enters the foramen. Failing to contact bone (too deep/medial) risks depositing near the parotid and facial nerve. The external oblique ridge is a landmark for locating the retromolar area, not the deposition site.

   Reference: Malamed SF, Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th ed. (2019), Elsevier.

10. Question 10 · Restorative Dentistry (Operative Dentistry & Prosthodontics)

    A semi-adjustable articulator is programmed using a protrusive interocclusal record to set the sagittal condylar inclination. If this setting is inadvertently made much steeper than the patient's true condylar path, what is the most likely consequence in the finished restorations?

    1. APosterior restorations will have insufficient cusp height causing anterior open bite
    2. BRestored posterior cusps will be built too tall/steep, producing balancing and working interferences intraorally
    3. CAnterior guidance will be flattened, eliminating protrusive contact
    4. DThe centric stops will shift bodily to a more distal position
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Restored posterior cusps will be built too tall/steep, producing balancing and working interferences intraorally

    The condylar inclination governs how much posterior disclusion the articulator simulates; an artificially steep setting simulates more disclusion than truly occurs, so cusps waxed to fit will be too tall and create interferences in the mouth. A shallower-than-actual setting produces the opposite (over-reduced cusps). The error affects cusp steepness and interferences, not centric stop position or anterior guidance directly.

    Reference: Rosenstiel, Land, Walton. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, 5th ed., 2016

11. Question 11 · Endodontics

    Which test provides the most reliable objective assessment of true pulp vitality by measuring blood flow rather than nerve response?

    1. AElectric pulp test
    2. BCold test with Endo-Ice
    3. CPercussion test
    4. DLaser Doppler flowmetry / pulse oximetry
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Laser Doppler flowmetry / pulse oximetry

    Laser Doppler flowmetry and pulse oximetry assess pulpal blood flow, which is the true indicator of vitality, and are especially valuable in traumatized or recently luxated teeth where sensory tests can be unreliable. EPT and cold tests measure sensory (nerve) response, and percussion assesses periradicular status, not pulp vitality.

    Reference: Cohen's Pathways of the Pulp, 12th ed. (2021); European Society of Endodontology position statements

12. Question 12 · Oral Medicine, Oral Pathology & Diagnostic Sciences

    When planning placement of a mandibular posterior implant where the exact buccolingual position of the inferior alveolar canal is critical, which imaging modality provides the most appropriate three-dimensional assessment while balancing dose?

    1. AStandard periapical radiograph
    2. BPanoramic radiograph
    3. CCone-beam computed tomography (CBCT)
    4. DOcclusal radiograph
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT)

    CBCT provides three-dimensional, cross-sectional visualization of the inferior alveolar canal and bone volume needed for implant planning at a lower dose than conventional medical CT. Periapical, panoramic, and occlusal radiographs are two-dimensional and cannot reliably determine buccolingual relationships.

    Reference: AAOMR Position Statement on Selection Criteria for CBCT in Dentistry, 2012; SEDENTEXCT Guidelines, 2012

General Dentist reference books and guidelines

Every question in this bank names the textbook or guideline its answer rests on. These are the sources our General Dentist questions cite most often - the reading list to revise from alongside the bank.

Sitting the SDLE? SCFHS publishes its own list: SCFHS's SDLE reading list. Where your regulator publishes a reading list, use the editions it names. Exam questions are not taken from any one book.