Dental Hygienist Prometric exam questions with answers

1. Question 1Cariology and Preventive Dentistrymedium

   Which factor is most important for the long-term retention of a resin-based fissure sealant?

   1. AMoisture control during placement
   2. BViscosity of the sealant
   3. CColour of the sealant material
   4. DUse of a slow-speed bur on every fissure
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: A. Moisture control during placement

   Salivary contamination of etched enamel is the main cause of sealant failure, so isolation and moisture control matter most. Routine mechanical preparation of fissures is not required.

2. Question 2Cariology and Preventive Dentistryhard

   A 20 kg child swallows a quantity of fluoride product. Using the probably toxic dose of 5 mg fluoride per kg, above what amount of ingested fluoride should immediate medical treatment be sought?

   1. A100 mg
   2. B20 mg
   3. C50 mg
   4. D500 mg
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: A. 100 mg

   The probably toxic dose is 5 mg F per kg, so for 20 kg it is 100 mg, above which emergency treatment and hospital referral are needed. Lower amounts are managed with oral calcium such as milk and observation.

3. Question 3Dental Radiographymedium

   A bitewing image shows a clear, curved unexposed area on one side. What is the most likely cause?

   1. AThe patient moved during exposure
   2. BThe exposure time was too long
   3. CThe beam was not centred on the receptor
   4. DThe receptor was bent
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: C. The beam was not centred on the receptor

   A cone cut occurs when the position-indicating device is not centred over the receptor, leaving part of it unexposed. Patient movement causes blurring, and bending causes distortion.

4. Question 4Infection Control and Occupational Safetymedium

   Which steam sterilisation parameters are standard for wrapped dental instruments in a vacuum autoclave?

   1. A100 degrees Celsius for 10 minutes
   2. B134 degrees Celsius for 3 minutes
   3. C121 degrees Celsius for 3 minutes
   4. D160 degrees Celsius for 60 minutes
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: B. 134 degrees Celsius for 3 minutes

   A holding time of at least 3 minutes at 134 to 137 degrees Celsius is a standard steam cycle; 121 degrees requires about 15 minutes. 160 degrees for 60 minutes is a dry heat cycle.

5. Question 5Periodontologyeasy

   On the buccal of a lower molar the probing depth is 5 mm and the gingival margin is 2 mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. What is the clinical attachment level?

   1. A2 mm
   2. B3 mm
   3. C5 mm
   4. D7 mm
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: D. 7 mm

   When there is recession, the clinical attachment level equals probing depth plus recession, giving 5 + 2 = 7 mm. Subtracting the values would apply only if the gingival margin were coronal to the CEJ.

6. Question 6Infection Control and Occupational Safetymedium

   One to two months after completing a hepatitis B vaccine series, a hygienist's anti-HBs level is checked. Which level indicates a protective response?

   1. A1 mIU/mL or more
   2. B10 mIU/mL or more
   3. CBelow 10 mIU/mL
   4. DAny detectable HBsAg
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: B. 10 mIU/mL or more

   An anti-HBs concentration of at least 10 mIU/mL after vaccination indicates protection. Non-responders below this level should receive a second series, and HBsAg indicates infection rather than immunity.

7. Question 7Pharmacology, Local Anaesthesia and Medical Emergencieshard

   How many milligrams of lidocaine are contained in one 2.2 mL cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:80,000 adrenaline?

   1. A36 mg
   2. B22 mg
   3. C44 mg
   4. D88 mg
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: C. 44 mg

   A 2% solution contains 20 mg per mL, so 2.2 mL contains 44 mg. A 1.8 mL cartridge would contain 36 mg.

8. Question 8Pharmacology, Local Anaesthesia and Medical Emergencieseasy

   A patient becomes pale, sweaty and loses consciousness briefly while seated for scaling. Pulse is slow but present. What is the first action?

   1. ASit the patient fully upright
   2. BLay the patient flat and raise the legs
   3. CGive oral glucose immediately
   4. DInject intramuscular adrenaline
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: B. Lay the patient flat and raise the legs

   Vasovagal syncope is managed by laying the patient supine with legs raised to restore cerebral perfusion, loosening tight clothing and giving oxygen if needed. Sitting upright reduces cerebral blood flow further.

9. Question 9Periodontal Instrumentation and Clinical Proceduresmedium

   Which Gracey curette is designed for the mesial surfaces of posterior teeth?

   1. AGracey 7/8
   2. BGracey 1/2
   3. CGracey 11/12
   4. DGracey 13/14
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: C. Gracey 11/12

   Gracey 11/12 adapts to mesial surfaces of posterior teeth, while 13/14 is used on distal surfaces. Gracey 1/2 is for anterior teeth and 7/8 for posterior facial and lingual surfaces.

10. Question 10Periodontal Instrumentation and Clinical Proceduresmedium

    A patient reports having an older, unshielded cardiac pacemaker. Which instrument requires the most caution or should be avoided?

    1. AMagnetostrictive ultrasonic scaler
    2. BHand curette
    3. CSickle scaler
    4. DRubber cup polishing handpiece
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: A. Magnetostrictive ultrasonic scaler

    Magnetostrictive scalers generate a magnetic field that could interfere with older unshielded pacemakers, so hand or piezoelectric instrumentation is preferred after checking with the cardiologist. Hand instruments carry no electromagnetic risk.

11. Question 11Periodontologymedium

    A 45-year-old has a worst-site interdental clinical attachment loss of 5 mm, radiographic bone loss to the middle third of the root, probing depths up to 6 mm and no teeth lost from periodontitis. Which stage applies under the 2017 classification?

    1. AStage IV
    2. BStage I
    3. CStage II
    4. DStage III
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: D. Stage III

    Interdental attachment loss of 5 mm or more with bone loss reaching the middle third of the root places the case in Stage III. Stage II has 3 to 4 mm attachment loss and probing depths up to 5 mm.

12. Question 12Periodontologymedium

    A stressed university student who smokes presents with painful, bleeding gums, a foul odour and punched-out, grey-covered interdental papillae. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. APrimary herpetic gingivostomatitis
    2. BNecrotising gingivitis
    3. CPlaque-induced gingivitis
    4. DDesquamative gingivitis
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: B. Necrotising gingivitis

    Pain, bleeding and necrotic, ulcerated papillae with a pseudomembrane are characteristic of necrotising gingivitis, linked to stress, smoking and poor hygiene. Herpetic gingivostomatitis causes vesicles and diffuse gingival inflammation rather than papillary necrosis.

13. Question 13Periodontologymedium

    A Nabers probe enters the buccal furcation of a lower molar horizontally but does not pass through to the lingual. Which Glickman grade applies?

    1. AGrade IV
    2. BGrade I
    3. CGrade III
    4. DGrade II
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: D. Grade II

    Grade II involvement has partial horizontal bone loss into the furcation without a through-and-through defect. Grade III passes through but remains covered by soft tissue, and Grade IV is clinically visible.

14. Question 14Pharmacology, Local Anaesthesia and Medical Emergenciesmedium

    An adult develops facial swelling, wheeze and hypotension minutes after an injection in the dental chair. What is the correct first drug and dose?

    1. AAdrenaline 500 micrograms IM
    2. BAdrenaline 1 mg IV bolus
    3. CChlorphenamine 10 mg IM
    4. DHydrocortisone 200 mg IM
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: A. Adrenaline 500 micrograms IM

    Anaphylaxis is treated first with intramuscular adrenaline 500 micrograms (0.5 mL of 1 mg/mL) in adults, repeated after 5 minutes if needed. Antihistamines and steroids are not first-line, and IV bolus adrenaline is for cardiac arrest.

15. Question 15Pharmacology, Local Anaesthesia and Medical Emergenciesmedium

    A patient with type 1 diabetes who skipped breakfast becomes confused and sweaty but can still swallow. What should be given?

    1. AIntramuscular glucagon only
    2. B15 to 20 g of oral glucose
    3. CSubcutaneous insulin
    4. DNothing until the doctor arrives
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: B. 15 to 20 g of oral glucose

    A conscious, cooperative patient with hypoglycaemia should receive 15 to 20 g of fast-acting oral glucose, repeated if needed. Glucagon is reserved for patients who cannot swallow safely, and insulin would worsen the episode.

Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.