Microbiology Laboratory Prometric exam questions with answers
15 original practice questions written to the Microbiology Laboratory exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the Microbiology Laboratory exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP and every other GCC regulator, from their own published rules.
- 15
- Free questions
- 55%
- DHA pass mark
- 150
- Questions on the DHA exam
- 12
- Questions in the free mock
Quick answer
The Microbiology Laboratory exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours at DHA (pass mark 55%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 12-question timed mock.
The Microbiology Laboratory exam in every GCC country
DHA publish an exact Microbiology Laboratory exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.
| Regulator | Exam | Format | Pass mark | Fee per attempt | Practise |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| DHA Dubai | Medical Microbiology Technologist (MIC5691) | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 55% | USD 240 (about AED 880) | DHA questions → |
| DOH Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra | DOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Written + oral/OSCE | Pass / fail only | Not published | DOH questions → |
| MOHAP Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah | MOHAP licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based | Not published | Not published | MOHAP questions → |
| SHA Emirate of Sharjah | SHA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Set at assessment | Not published | Not published | SHA questions → |
| SCFHS Kingdom of Saudi Arabia | SCFHS licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 200 MCQs, 240 min | 500-560 of 800 | Not published | SCFHS questions → |
| QCHP State of Qatar | QCHP licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 150 MCQs, 3 hrs | 50-65% | Not published | QCHP questions → |
| NHRA Kingdom of Bahrain | NHRA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Prometric CBT | Not published | Not published | NHRA questions → |
| OMSB Sultanate of Oman | OMSB licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based OC exam | Not published | Not published | OMSB questions → |
| Kuwait MOH State of Kuwait | Kuwait MOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 150 MCQs, 170 min | 60-70% | Not published | Kuwait MOH questions → |
exact exam published for Microbiology Laboratory
Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.
15 Microbiology Laboratory exam questions with answers
Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.
- Question 1Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistancemedium
Which disc is recommended as the phenotypic surrogate to detect mecA-mediated methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus by disc diffusion?
- APenicillin
- BVancomycin
- COxacillin
- DCefoxitin
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Cefoxitin
Cefoxitin is a strong inducer of mecA expression and gives clearer separation between resistant and susceptible strains by disc diffusion, so it is the recommended surrogate. Oxacillin discs perform poorly for disc diffusion. Penicillin resistance is mainly due to beta-lactamase.
- Question 2Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistancehard
A Klebsiella pneumoniae isolate has reduced susceptibility to meropenem. Which phenotypic test detects carbapenemase production by incubating a meropenem disc in a suspension of the isolate?
- ADouble-disc synergy test with clavulanate
- BD-zone test with erythromycin
- CModified carbapenem inactivation method
- DCefoxitin disc screening test
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Modified carbapenem inactivation method
In the modified carbapenem inactivation method (mCIM), a meropenem disc is incubated in the isolate suspension and then placed on a lawn of a susceptible E. coli. If the isolate produces a carbapenemase, the drug is destroyed and the zone is small or absent. Molecular or immunochromatographic tests can then identify the enzyme type.
- Question 3Bacteriology and Identificationmedium
A urine culture grows a lactose non-fermenter that spreads in waves across the blood agar plate. It is urease positive and produces H2S. What is the most likely organism?
- AEscherichia coli
- BProteus mirabilis
- CSalmonella enterica
- DPseudomonas aeruginosa
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Proteus mirabilis
Swarming motility on blood agar, strong urease and H2S production are typical of Proteus mirabilis. Urease production promotes struvite stone formation. Salmonella produces H2S but is urease negative and does not swarm.
- Question 4Biosafety, Infection Prevention and Qualitymedium
The daily disc diffusion quality control with E. coli ATCC 25922 gives a gentamicin zone outside the acceptable range. What should be done with today's patient gentamicin results?
- AReport them, as patient strains differ
- BReport them with a disclaimer comment
- CAdjust the zones by the size of the error
- DWithhold them and investigate the cause
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Withhold them and investigate the cause
An out-of-range control result means the test system may be faulty, so patient results for that drug should not be reported until the cause, such as disc potency, medium or inoculum, is found and corrected. Adjusting zones or adding disclaimers is not acceptable practice. Corrective action must be documented.
- Question 5Specimen Collection, Transport and Processingeasy
A nurse asks how much blood to put into each adult blood culture bottle for the best detection of bacteraemia. What is the recommended volume per bottle?
- A1 to 2 mL
- B8 to 10 mL
- C3 to 5 mL
- D20 to 25 mL
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 8 to 10 mL
Most adult blood culture bottles are designed for 8 to 10 mL, and detection rises with the volume of blood cultured. Underfilled bottles are a common cause of missed bacteraemia. Overfilling can increase false positives in some systems.
- Question 6Molecular Diagnosticsmedium
Two samples are tested by real-time PCR for the same target. Sample A has a Ct of 18 and sample B has a Ct of 32. What does this indicate?
- ASample A has more target than sample B
- BSample B has more target than sample A
- CBoth samples have equal amounts of target
- DSample A is likely a false positive
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Sample A has more target than sample B
The Ct value is the cycle at which fluorescence crosses the threshold, so a lower Ct means more starting target. With efficient amplification each cycle roughly doubles the product, so 14 cycles represent a very large difference in quantity. A high Ct can reflect a low load or contamination and needs clinical interpretation.
- Question 7Parasitologyhard
A stool from a child with watery diarrhoea is stained with a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain. Round, pink-red oocysts of about 4 to 6 micrometres are seen. What is the most likely organism?
- ACyclospora cayetanensis
- BCryptosporidium species
- CCystoisospora belli
- DGiardia duodenalis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Cryptosporidium species
Cryptosporidium oocysts are about 4 to 6 micrometres and stain pink-red with modified acid-fast stains. Cyclospora oocysts are larger, about 8 to 10 micrometres, and stain variably. Cystoisospora oocysts are much larger and oval, while Giardia is not acid fast.
- Question 8Virology and Serologyeasy
Which sample is generally preferred for PCR detection of influenza in a patient with acute respiratory symptoms?
- ANasopharyngeal swab in transport medium
- BMidstream urine in a sterile pot
- CSerum for antibody testing
- DStool in a sterile container
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Nasopharyngeal swab in transport medium
A nasopharyngeal swab placed in viral transport medium gives good viral yield for PCR in acute respiratory infection. Serology is retrospective and not useful for acute diagnosis. Urine and stool are not appropriate samples for influenza.
Halfway - how are you scoring?
Test yourself under real exam conditions
The free 12-question mock is timed and scored against the pass mark, domain by domain, so you see exactly where you are losing marks. The full Microbiology Laboratory bank has 3 full-length papers (about 450 questions) for AED 249, one-time.
- Question 9Molecular Diagnosticsmedium
MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry is used to identify a bacterial colony. What is mainly measured to produce the identification?
- ADNA sequence of the 16S rRNA gene
- BCarbohydrate fermentation patterns
- CFatty acid profile by gas chromatography
- DMass spectrum of mainly ribosomal proteins
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Mass spectrum of mainly ribosomal proteins
MALDI-TOF ionises proteins from the colony, mostly abundant ribosomal proteins, and compares the resulting mass spectrum with a reference database. 16S sequencing and fatty acid analysis are different methods. Identification depends on the quality of the database.
- Question 10Mycologymedium
A patient with advanced HIV has headache and fever. Which test on CSF is most sensitive for cryptococcal meningitis?
- AIndia ink stain
- BGram stain
- CCalcofluor white stain
- DCryptococcal antigen test
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Cryptococcal antigen test
Cryptococcal antigen detection, for example by lateral flow assay, is more sensitive than India ink microscopy and is the preferred rapid test. India ink shows encapsulated yeasts but misses low-burden infection. Culture should also be performed.
- Question 11Parasitologymedium
A patient with chronic diarrhoea needs stool microscopy for ova, cysts and parasites. Why are three samples on separate days often requested?
- AParasites only appear in the evening
- BOne sample is used for each stain
- CShedding of cysts and eggs is intermittent
- DThree samples are needed for culture
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Shedding of cysts and eggs is intermittent
Many intestinal parasites shed cysts and eggs intermittently, so a single negative sample does not exclude infection. Examining multiple samples on different days increases sensitivity. Antigen or molecular tests can reduce the need for repeat samples for some organisms.
- Question 12Specimen Collection, Transport and Processingmedium
A midstream urine sample without preservative cannot reach the laboratory for 6 hours. What should be done to keep the culture result valid?
- AKeep it at room temperature
- BRefrigerate it at about 4 degrees Celsius
- CIncubate it at 37 degrees Celsius
- DFreeze it at -20 degrees Celsius
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Refrigerate it at about 4 degrees Celsius
Bacteria multiply in urine at room temperature, so unpreserved urine should be cultured within about 2 hours or refrigerated, which preserves counts for up to 24 hours. Incubation would falsely raise the count. Freezing can damage organisms and cells.
- Question 13Specimen Collection, Transport and Processingmedium
A Gram stain of an expectorated sputum shows more than 25 squamous epithelial cells and 5 neutrophils per low power field. What should the laboratory do?
- AReject it as saliva and request a repeat
- BCulture it and report all organisms
- CCulture it for anaerobes only
- DReport it as a normal sputum
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Reject it as saliva and request a repeat
Many squamous epithelial cells with few neutrophils show heavy oral contamination, so culture results would mainly reflect mouth flora. Screening criteria such as fewer than 10 squamous cells per low power field are used to accept samples. Rejecting and requesting a repeat avoids misleading reports.
- Question 14Virology and Serologymedium
A patient's hepatitis B results are: HBsAg negative, anti-HBc total positive and anti-HBs positive. What is the most likely interpretation?
- AImmunity from vaccination only
- BAcute hepatitis B infection
- CChronic hepatitis B infection
- DPast infection that has resolved
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Past infection that has resolved
Anti-HBc shows past exposure to the virus, and anti-HBs with negative HBsAg shows recovery and immunity. Vaccination produces anti-HBs only, without anti-HBc. Acute or chronic infection would have a positive HBsAg.
- Question 15Virology and Serologymedium
Why do fourth-generation HIV screening assays detect infection earlier than third-generation antibody-only assays?
- AThey detect p24 antigen as well as antibody
- BThey detect HIV RNA directly
- CThey detect only IgG antibody
- DThey use saliva instead of blood
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. They detect p24 antigen as well as antibody
Fourth-generation assays detect both HIV antibody and p24 antigen, which appears before antibody, shortening the window period. They do not detect RNA, which requires nucleic acid testing. Reactive results must be confirmed by a supplementary test.
What the Microbiology Laboratory exam covers
The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.
Specimen Collection, Transport and Processing
~10%Blood culture collection · CSF handling and urgent processing · Urine collection, storage and preservatives
Bacteriology and Identification
~20%Gram stain interpretation and reporting · Staphylococci · Streptococci and enterococci
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistance
~15%Disc diffusion standardisation · MIC methods and breakpoint interpretation (CLSI and EUCAST) · MRSA detection with cefoxitin and mecA
Mycology
~8%Yeast identification · Candida auris detection and reporting · Cryptococcus
Parasitology
~8%Malaria · Stool ova, cysts and parasites examination · Intestinal protozoa
Virology and Serology
~10%Hepatitis B serological markers · HIV testing algorithms and window period · Hepatitis C antibody and RNA testing
Molecular Diagnostics
~8%PCR principles and real-time PCR Ct values · Internal controls and PCR inhibition · Contamination control and unidirectional workflow
Mycobacteriology
~6%Ziehl-Neelsen and auramine staining · Specimen decontamination with NALC-NaOH · Liquid and solid culture systems
Biosafety, Infection Prevention and Quality
~10%Biosafety levels and biological safety cabinets · High-risk organisms · Spill management and disinfection
Clinical Syndromes and Interpretation
~5%Urinary tract infection · Bacterial meningitis · Bloodstream infection and contaminants
How to answer these questions
Questions test applied practice: what you would do with this patient, this result or this image - not textbook definitions.
Safety items (radiation, infection control, patient identification, equipment checks) are high-yield and quick to revise.
Under time pressure, flag and move on: every question carries the same mark.
Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.
Microbiology Laboratory exam questions: FAQs
How many questions are in the Microbiology Laboratory Prometric exam?
What is the pass mark for the Microbiology Laboratory exam?
Are these real exam questions?
Is the Microbiology Laboratory exam the same in every GCC country?
How should I use these questions?
Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.
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