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Microbiology Laboratory Prometric exam questions with answers

15 original practice questions written to the Microbiology Laboratory exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the Microbiology Laboratory exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP and every other GCC regulator, from their own published rules.

15
Free questions
55%
DHA pass mark
150
Questions on the DHA exam
12
Questions in the free mock

Quick answer

The Microbiology Laboratory exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours at DHA (pass mark 55%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 12-question timed mock.

The Microbiology Laboratory exam in every GCC country

DHA publish an exact Microbiology Laboratory exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.

Microbiology Laboratory licensing exam in every GCC country
RegulatorExamFormatPass markFee per attemptPractise
DHA
Dubai
Medical Microbiology Technologist (MIC5691)150 MCQs in 3 hours55%USD 240 (about AED 880)DHA questions →
DOH
Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra
DOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Written + oral/OSCEPass / fail onlyNot publishedDOH questions →
MOHAP
Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah
MOHAP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-basedNot publishedNot publishedMOHAP questions →
SHA
Emirate of Sharjah
SHA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Set at assessmentNot publishedNot publishedSHA questions →
SCFHS
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
SCFHS licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
200 MCQs, 240 min500-560 of 800Not publishedSCFHS questions →
QCHP
State of Qatar
QCHP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
150 MCQs, 3 hrs50-65%Not publishedQCHP questions →
NHRA
Kingdom of Bahrain
NHRA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Prometric CBTNot publishedNot publishedNHRA questions →
OMSB
Sultanate of Oman
OMSB licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-based OC examNot publishedNot publishedOMSB questions →
Kuwait MOH
State of Kuwait
Kuwait MOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
150 MCQs, 170 min60-70%Not publishedKuwait MOH questions →

exact exam published for Microbiology Laboratory

Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.

15 Microbiology Laboratory exam questions with answers

Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.

  1. Question 1Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistancemedium

    Which disc is recommended as the phenotypic surrogate to detect mecA-mediated methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus by disc diffusion?

    1. APenicillin
    2. BVancomycin
    3. COxacillin
    4. DCefoxitin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Cefoxitin

    Cefoxitin is a strong inducer of mecA expression and gives clearer separation between resistant and susceptible strains by disc diffusion, so it is the recommended surrogate. Oxacillin discs perform poorly for disc diffusion. Penicillin resistance is mainly due to beta-lactamase.

  2. Question 2Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistancehard

    A Klebsiella pneumoniae isolate has reduced susceptibility to meropenem. Which phenotypic test detects carbapenemase production by incubating a meropenem disc in a suspension of the isolate?

    1. ADouble-disc synergy test with clavulanate
    2. BD-zone test with erythromycin
    3. CModified carbapenem inactivation method
    4. DCefoxitin disc screening test
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Modified carbapenem inactivation method

    In the modified carbapenem inactivation method (mCIM), a meropenem disc is incubated in the isolate suspension and then placed on a lawn of a susceptible E. coli. If the isolate produces a carbapenemase, the drug is destroyed and the zone is small or absent. Molecular or immunochromatographic tests can then identify the enzyme type.

  3. Question 3Bacteriology and Identificationmedium

    A urine culture grows a lactose non-fermenter that spreads in waves across the blood agar plate. It is urease positive and produces H2S. What is the most likely organism?

    1. AEscherichia coli
    2. BProteus mirabilis
    3. CSalmonella enterica
    4. DPseudomonas aeruginosa
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Proteus mirabilis

    Swarming motility on blood agar, strong urease and H2S production are typical of Proteus mirabilis. Urease production promotes struvite stone formation. Salmonella produces H2S but is urease negative and does not swarm.

  4. Question 4Biosafety, Infection Prevention and Qualitymedium

    The daily disc diffusion quality control with E. coli ATCC 25922 gives a gentamicin zone outside the acceptable range. What should be done with today's patient gentamicin results?

    1. AReport them, as patient strains differ
    2. BReport them with a disclaimer comment
    3. CAdjust the zones by the size of the error
    4. DWithhold them and investigate the cause
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Withhold them and investigate the cause

    An out-of-range control result means the test system may be faulty, so patient results for that drug should not be reported until the cause, such as disc potency, medium or inoculum, is found and corrected. Adjusting zones or adding disclaimers is not acceptable practice. Corrective action must be documented.

  5. Question 5Specimen Collection, Transport and Processingeasy

    A nurse asks how much blood to put into each adult blood culture bottle for the best detection of bacteraemia. What is the recommended volume per bottle?

    1. A1 to 2 mL
    2. B8 to 10 mL
    3. C3 to 5 mL
    4. D20 to 25 mL
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. 8 to 10 mL

    Most adult blood culture bottles are designed for 8 to 10 mL, and detection rises with the volume of blood cultured. Underfilled bottles are a common cause of missed bacteraemia. Overfilling can increase false positives in some systems.

  6. Question 6Molecular Diagnosticsmedium

    Two samples are tested by real-time PCR for the same target. Sample A has a Ct of 18 and sample B has a Ct of 32. What does this indicate?

    1. ASample A has more target than sample B
    2. BSample B has more target than sample A
    3. CBoth samples have equal amounts of target
    4. DSample A is likely a false positive
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Sample A has more target than sample B

    The Ct value is the cycle at which fluorescence crosses the threshold, so a lower Ct means more starting target. With efficient amplification each cycle roughly doubles the product, so 14 cycles represent a very large difference in quantity. A high Ct can reflect a low load or contamination and needs clinical interpretation.

  7. Question 7Parasitologyhard

    A stool from a child with watery diarrhoea is stained with a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain. Round, pink-red oocysts of about 4 to 6 micrometres are seen. What is the most likely organism?

    1. ACyclospora cayetanensis
    2. BCryptosporidium species
    3. CCystoisospora belli
    4. DGiardia duodenalis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Cryptosporidium species

    Cryptosporidium oocysts are about 4 to 6 micrometres and stain pink-red with modified acid-fast stains. Cyclospora oocysts are larger, about 8 to 10 micrometres, and stain variably. Cystoisospora oocysts are much larger and oval, while Giardia is not acid fast.

  8. Question 8Virology and Serologyeasy

    Which sample is generally preferred for PCR detection of influenza in a patient with acute respiratory symptoms?

    1. ANasopharyngeal swab in transport medium
    2. BMidstream urine in a sterile pot
    3. CSerum for antibody testing
    4. DStool in a sterile container
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Nasopharyngeal swab in transport medium

    A nasopharyngeal swab placed in viral transport medium gives good viral yield for PCR in acute respiratory infection. Serology is retrospective and not useful for acute diagnosis. Urine and stool are not appropriate samples for influenza.

Halfway - how are you scoring?

Test yourself under real exam conditions

The free 12-question mock is timed and scored against the pass mark, domain by domain, so you see exactly where you are losing marks. The full Microbiology Laboratory bank has 3 full-length papers (about 450 questions) for AED 249, one-time.

  1. Question 9Molecular Diagnosticsmedium

    MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry is used to identify a bacterial colony. What is mainly measured to produce the identification?

    1. ADNA sequence of the 16S rRNA gene
    2. BCarbohydrate fermentation patterns
    3. CFatty acid profile by gas chromatography
    4. DMass spectrum of mainly ribosomal proteins
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Mass spectrum of mainly ribosomal proteins

    MALDI-TOF ionises proteins from the colony, mostly abundant ribosomal proteins, and compares the resulting mass spectrum with a reference database. 16S sequencing and fatty acid analysis are different methods. Identification depends on the quality of the database.

  2. Question 10Mycologymedium

    A patient with advanced HIV has headache and fever. Which test on CSF is most sensitive for cryptococcal meningitis?

    1. AIndia ink stain
    2. BGram stain
    3. CCalcofluor white stain
    4. DCryptococcal antigen test
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Cryptococcal antigen test

    Cryptococcal antigen detection, for example by lateral flow assay, is more sensitive than India ink microscopy and is the preferred rapid test. India ink shows encapsulated yeasts but misses low-burden infection. Culture should also be performed.

  3. Question 11Parasitologymedium

    A patient with chronic diarrhoea needs stool microscopy for ova, cysts and parasites. Why are three samples on separate days often requested?

    1. AParasites only appear in the evening
    2. BOne sample is used for each stain
    3. CShedding of cysts and eggs is intermittent
    4. DThree samples are needed for culture
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Shedding of cysts and eggs is intermittent

    Many intestinal parasites shed cysts and eggs intermittently, so a single negative sample does not exclude infection. Examining multiple samples on different days increases sensitivity. Antigen or molecular tests can reduce the need for repeat samples for some organisms.

  4. Question 12Specimen Collection, Transport and Processingmedium

    A midstream urine sample without preservative cannot reach the laboratory for 6 hours. What should be done to keep the culture result valid?

    1. AKeep it at room temperature
    2. BRefrigerate it at about 4 degrees Celsius
    3. CIncubate it at 37 degrees Celsius
    4. DFreeze it at -20 degrees Celsius
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Refrigerate it at about 4 degrees Celsius

    Bacteria multiply in urine at room temperature, so unpreserved urine should be cultured within about 2 hours or refrigerated, which preserves counts for up to 24 hours. Incubation would falsely raise the count. Freezing can damage organisms and cells.

  5. Question 13Specimen Collection, Transport and Processingmedium

    A Gram stain of an expectorated sputum shows more than 25 squamous epithelial cells and 5 neutrophils per low power field. What should the laboratory do?

    1. AReject it as saliva and request a repeat
    2. BCulture it and report all organisms
    3. CCulture it for anaerobes only
    4. DReport it as a normal sputum
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Reject it as saliva and request a repeat

    Many squamous epithelial cells with few neutrophils show heavy oral contamination, so culture results would mainly reflect mouth flora. Screening criteria such as fewer than 10 squamous cells per low power field are used to accept samples. Rejecting and requesting a repeat avoids misleading reports.

  6. Question 14Virology and Serologymedium

    A patient's hepatitis B results are: HBsAg negative, anti-HBc total positive and anti-HBs positive. What is the most likely interpretation?

    1. AImmunity from vaccination only
    2. BAcute hepatitis B infection
    3. CChronic hepatitis B infection
    4. DPast infection that has resolved
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Past infection that has resolved

    Anti-HBc shows past exposure to the virus, and anti-HBs with negative HBsAg shows recovery and immunity. Vaccination produces anti-HBs only, without anti-HBc. Acute or chronic infection would have a positive HBsAg.

  7. Question 15Virology and Serologymedium

    Why do fourth-generation HIV screening assays detect infection earlier than third-generation antibody-only assays?

    1. AThey detect p24 antigen as well as antibody
    2. BThey detect HIV RNA directly
    3. CThey detect only IgG antibody
    4. DThey use saliva instead of blood
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. They detect p24 antigen as well as antibody

    Fourth-generation assays detect both HIV antibody and p24 antigen, which appears before antibody, shortening the window period. They do not detect RNA, which requires nucleic acid testing. Reactive results must be confirmed by a supplementary test.

What the Microbiology Laboratory exam covers

The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.

Specimen Collection, Transport and Processing

~10%

Blood culture collection · CSF handling and urgent processing · Urine collection, storage and preservatives

Bacteriology and Identification

~20%

Gram stain interpretation and reporting · Staphylococci · Streptococci and enterococci

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistance

~15%

Disc diffusion standardisation · MIC methods and breakpoint interpretation (CLSI and EUCAST) · MRSA detection with cefoxitin and mecA

Mycology

~8%

Yeast identification · Candida auris detection and reporting · Cryptococcus

Parasitology

~8%

Malaria · Stool ova, cysts and parasites examination · Intestinal protozoa

Virology and Serology

~10%

Hepatitis B serological markers · HIV testing algorithms and window period · Hepatitis C antibody and RNA testing

Molecular Diagnostics

~8%

PCR principles and real-time PCR Ct values · Internal controls and PCR inhibition · Contamination control and unidirectional workflow

Mycobacteriology

~6%

Ziehl-Neelsen and auramine staining · Specimen decontamination with NALC-NaOH · Liquid and solid culture systems

Biosafety, Infection Prevention and Quality

~10%

Biosafety levels and biological safety cabinets · High-risk organisms · Spill management and disinfection

Clinical Syndromes and Interpretation

~5%

Urinary tract infection · Bacterial meningitis · Bloodstream infection and contaminants

How to answer these questions

1

Questions test applied practice: what you would do with this patient, this result or this image - not textbook definitions.

2

Safety items (radiation, infection control, patient identification, equipment checks) are high-yield and quick to revise.

3

Under time pressure, flag and move on: every question carries the same mark.

4

Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.

Microbiology Laboratory exam questions: FAQs

How many questions are in the Microbiology Laboratory Prometric exam?
It depends on the regulator: DHA 150 MCQs in 3 hours. The full table above lists every GCC regulator.
What is the pass mark for the Microbiology Laboratory exam?
DHA: 55%. Pass marks are set exam by exam, so use your own regulator's figure.
Are these real exam questions?
No. Regulators do not release their papers, and anything sold as a leaked paper is unofficial and risky to rely on. These are original questions written to the official exam blueprint, at the level and in the style of the real exam, each with a worked explanation.
Is the Microbiology Laboratory exam the same in every GCC country?
The clinical content is broadly similar because the exams test the same safe practice, but the format, length, pass mark, attempts and fees differ by regulator. Prepare on the content once, then check your regulator's exact rules before you book.
How should I use these questions?
Answer each one before opening the explanation, and note why each wrong option is wrong. Then take the free 12-question timed mock to see your score against the pass mark, and move to full-length papers when you score comfortably above it.

Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.

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