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DHA Microbiology Laboratory exam questions

Culture, identification, susceptibility testing, serology and biosafety.

DHA MIC5691DHA pass mark 55%3 papers · 450 Qs
AED 249one-time
About a quarter of one exam fee
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What is riding on this exam

~AED 880
Exam fee, per attempt
Published by DHA. Paid again on every re-sit.
3
Attempts - in total
The cap is three across all UAE authorities, not three each.
55%
DHA pass mark
Pass or fail only. Other authorities set their own pass marks.

One failed attempt costs you the fee again, plus months of delay on your licence, your visa and your start date. This bank costs about a quarter of one exam fee.

Pass marks at a glance: DHA exam codes and pass marks for all written exams in one sourced table.

DHA Microbiology Laboratory exam at a glance

Exam code
MIC5691
Questions
150 MCQs
Duration
3 hours
Pass mark
55%
Fee per attempt
USD 240 (about AED 880)
Result
Pass or fail, no score

From the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. Delivered by Prometric; three attempts in total across the UAE authorities. Full DHA exam guide.

Try two questions from this bank

Original questions from the bank - pick an answer to see the rationale and reference.

Q1Bacteriology and Identification

A wound swab grows golden colonies of Gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase positive and coagulase positive. What is the most likely organism?

Choose an answer to see the rationale.

Q2Bacteriology and Identification

CSF grows oxidase-positive Gram-negative diplococci on chocolate agar. Carbohydrate utilisation shows acid from glucose and maltose but not sucrose or lactose. What is the most likely organism?

Choose an answer to see the rationale.

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Liked those? The full bank has 450 questions at this standard - every one with a rationale and a reference.

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What's inside

  • ✓3 full-length papers (~150 Q each)
  • ✓450 questions, no overlap between papers
  • ✓Four options, one unambiguous best answer
  • ✓A full rationale on every question
  • ✓A real guideline or textbook reference
  • ✓Every sub-topic in the published blueprint

The Microbiology Laboratory exam in every GCC country

Microbiology Laboratory licensing exam in every GCC country
RegulatorExamFormatPass markFee per attemptPractise
DHA
Dubai
Medical Microbiology Technologist (MIC5691)150 MCQs in 3 hours55%USD 240 (about AED 880)DHA questions →
DOH
Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra
DOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Written + oral/OSCEPass / fail onlyNot publishedDOH questions →
MOHAP
Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah
MOHAP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-basedNot publishedNot publishedMOHAP questions →
SHA
Emirate of Sharjah
SHA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Set at assessmentNot publishedNot publishedSHA questions →
SCFHS
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
SCFHS licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
200 MCQs, 240 min500-560 of 800Not publishedSCFHS questions →
QCHP
State of Qatar
QCHP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
150 MCQs, 3 hrs50-65%Not publishedQCHP questions →
NHRA
Kingdom of Bahrain
NHRA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Prometric CBTNot publishedNot publishedNHRA questions →
OMSB
Sultanate of Oman
OMSB licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-based OC examNot publishedNot publishedOMSB questions →
Kuwait MOH
State of Kuwait
Kuwait MOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
150 MCQs, 170 min60-70%Not publishedKuwait MOH questions →

exact exam published for Microbiology Laboratory

From each regulator's own exam pages; anything a regulator does not publish says so. Assessment mode also depends on your licence title, so confirm your route on your eligibility notice.

Try 15 free Microbiology Laboratory questions with answersDifferent from the samples on this page - each with a full explanationStart →

What the Microbiology Laboratory exam covers

The published blueprint for this exam breaks into 10 domains and 67 testable sub-topics. Our bank covers every one of them - here is the full map, so you can see exactly what you are expected to know.

Specimen Collection, Transport and Processing~10%6 topics
  • Blood culture collection: volume, sets and contamination
  • CSF handling and urgent processing
  • Urine collection, storage and preservatives
  • Sputum quality assessment and rejection criteria
  • Swabs, tissue and anaerobic transport
  • Specimen labelling, rejection and chain of custody
Bacteriology and Identification~20%9 topics
  • Gram stain interpretation and reporting
  • Staphylococci: catalase, coagulase and identification
  • Streptococci and enterococci: haemolysis, bacitracin, optochin, PYR
  • Enterobacterales: lactose fermentation, urease, H2S and motility
  • Non-fermenters: Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas
  • Neisseria and Haemophilus identification
  • Listeria, Corynebacterium and other Gram-positive rods
  • Anaerobes and Clostridioides difficile testing
  • MALDI-TOF identification
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistance~15%8 topics
  • Disc diffusion standardisation: inoculum, agar and incubation
  • MIC methods and breakpoint interpretation (CLSI and EUCAST)
  • MRSA detection with cefoxitin and mecA
  • Inducible clindamycin resistance (D-test)
  • ESBL and AmpC detection
  • Carbapenemase detection: mCIM and molecular tests
  • Vancomycin-resistant enterococci
  • Quality control strains for AST
Mycology~8%6 topics
  • Yeast identification: germ tube and chromogenic agar
  • Candida auris detection and reporting
  • Cryptococcus: India ink and antigen testing
  • Moulds: Aspergillus versus Mucorales morphology
  • Dermatophytes
  • Antifungal susceptibility basics
Parasitology~8%6 topics
  • Malaria: thick and thin films, species and parasitaemia
  • Stool ova, cysts and parasites examination
  • Intestinal protozoa: Giardia, Entamoeba, Cryptosporidium
  • Helminths: eggs and larvae
  • Modified acid-fast and trichrome stains
  • Blood and tissue parasites: Leishmania and filaria
Virology and Serology~10%7 topics
  • Hepatitis B serological markers
  • HIV testing algorithms and window period
  • Hepatitis C antibody and RNA testing
  • Respiratory virus detection
  • Dengue NS1, IgM and PCR timing
  • Serology principles: ELISA, IgM, IgG and avidity
  • Specimen requirements for viral testing
Molecular Diagnostics~8%6 topics
  • PCR principles and real-time PCR Ct values
  • Internal controls and PCR inhibition
  • Contamination control and unidirectional workflow
  • Syndromic multiplex panels
  • Sequencing and genotyping for outbreaks
  • Mass spectrometry principles
Mycobacteriology~6%6 topics
  • Ziehl-Neelsen and auramine staining
  • Specimen decontamination with NALC-NaOH
  • Liquid and solid culture systems
  • Xpert MTB/RIF and rifampicin resistance
  • Identification of M. tuberculosis complex and NTM
  • Drug susceptibility testing principles
Biosafety, Infection Prevention and Quality~10%8 topics
  • Biosafety levels and biological safety cabinets
  • High-risk organisms: Brucella and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Spill management and disinfection
  • Sterilisation validation and biological indicators
  • Waste segregation and disposal
  • Internal quality control and external quality assessment
  • Laboratory accreditation (ISO 15189) requirements
  • Notifiable organisms and outbreak reporting
Clinical Syndromes and Interpretation~5%5 topics
  • Urinary tract infection: significant bacteriuria
  • Bacterial meningitis: CSF findings
  • Bloodstream infection and contaminants
  • Gastrointestinal infection pathogens
  • Sexually transmitted infection testing

6 worked Microbiology Laboratory practice questions

Original exam-style questions from the bank, spread across the blueprint domains. They are not real or recalled exam questions. Try each one, then open the answer for the rationale and reference. None of them appear in the free mock exam, so reading them will not spoil it.

  1. Question 1 · Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistance

    An E. coli isolate is screened as a possible ESBL producer. In the combination disc test, which result confirms ESBL production?

    1. AZone increase of 5 mm or more with clavulanate
    2. BZone decrease of 5 mm or more with clavulanate
    3. CNo zone around a cefoxitin disc
    4. DFlattening of zone near an erythromycin disc
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Zone increase of 5 mm or more with clavulanate

    An increase of 5 mm or more in the zone around ceftazidime or cefotaxime when combined with clavulanate confirms ESBL production, because clavulanate inhibits the enzyme. Cefoxitin resistance suggests AmpC rather than ESBL. Flattening near erythromycin is the D-test for inducible clindamycin resistance.

    Reference: CLSI M100: Performance Standards for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

  2. Question 2 · Bacteriology and Identification

    Alpha-haemolytic, draughtsman-shaped colonies of Gram-positive diplococci grow from a blood culture. The isolate is optochin sensitive. What is the most likely organism?

    1. AStreptococcus pneumoniae
    2. BStreptococcus mitis
    3. CEnterococcus faecium
    4. DStreptococcus agalactiae
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

    Streptococcus pneumoniae is alpha-haemolytic, forms draughtsman colonies, is optochin sensitive and bile soluble. Viridans streptococci such as Streptococcus mitis are usually optochin resistant. Streptococcus agalactiae is beta-haemolytic.

    Reference: Murray's Manual of Clinical Microbiology, 12th ed.

  3. Question 3 · Bacteriology and Identification

    A wound culture grows non-lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rods that are oxidase positive, produce a green pigment and have a grape-like smell. What is the most likely organism?

    1. AKlebsiella pneumoniae
    2. BAcinetobacter baumannii
    3. CProteus mirabilis
    4. DPseudomonas aeruginosa
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    An oxidase-positive non-fermenter with green pigment (pyocyanin) and a grape-like odour is typical of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Acinetobacter is oxidase negative. Klebsiella and Proteus are oxidase-negative Enterobacterales.

    Reference: Murray's Manual of Clinical Microbiology, 12th ed.

  4. Question 4 · Bacteriology and Identification

    A hospital patient has diarrhoea. The laboratory's two-step algorithm shows a positive GDH screen but a negative toxin immunoassay. How should this result be interpreted?

    1. AActive C. difficile infection is confirmed
    2. BC. difficile is present but toxin was not detected
    3. CThe GDH result is a false positive
    4. DThe stool should be cultured anaerobically for 7 days
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. C. difficile is present but toxin was not detected

    A positive GDH or NAAT with a negative toxin test shows that C. difficile is present but toxin was not detected, which may represent colonisation or low toxin levels. The report should say so, and clinicians decide on treatment with the clinical picture. A positive toxin test is needed to confirm likely active infection.

    Reference: Crobach et al., ESCMID update of the diagnostic guidance document for Clostridium difficile infection, Clin Microbiol Infect 2016

  5. Question 5 · Biosafety, Infection Prevention and Quality

    A blood culture grows tiny Gram-negative coccobacilli after several days, and the patient drinks raw camel milk. How should the laboratory handle further work on this isolate?

    1. AUse a safety cabinet with level 3 practices
    2. BContinue identification on the open bench
    3. CSniff the plates to check for odour
    4. DPerform rapid identification strips on the open bench
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Use a safety cabinet with level 3 practices

    Brucella is a leading cause of laboratory-acquired infection, transmitted by aerosols. Suspected isolates must be handled in a biological safety cabinet using containment level 3 practices, and plates must never be sniffed. Open-bench work exposes staff to infection.

    Reference: WHO Laboratory Biosafety Manual, 4th ed.

  6. Question 6 · Mycobacteriology

    A sputum is cultured for mycobacteria in an automated liquid culture system. For how long should the tube be incubated before it is reported as negative?

    1. A7 days
    2. B14 days
    3. C42 days
    4. D90 days
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 42 days

    Automated liquid mycobacterial culture tubes are usually incubated for 42 days (6 weeks) before being reported negative, as Mycobacterium tuberculosis grows slowly. Solid media are often incubated for up to 8 weeks. Shorter incubation would miss slow-growing isolates.

    Reference: Siddiqi and Rusch-Gerdes, MGIT Procedure Manual, FIND 2006

Last reviewed September 2026

About these questions: every question is original, written to the published blueprint, with a rationale and a reference. No recalled or leaked exam content is used. How we write our questions.

Frequently asked questions

Are these real Microbiology Laboratory exam questions?
No. Every item is original, written by our team against the exam blueprint published by the health authorities. Real, recalled or leaked exam content breaches the testing bodies' rules and can lead to a permanent exam ban - we do not sell it, and neither should anyone else.
How many questions are in the Microbiology Laboratory bank?
450 original questions across 3 full-length papers of roughly 150 questions each - the same length as the real computer-based exam. The papers do not overlap, so you get 450 distinct items covering every sub-topic in the published blueprint.
What is the pass mark for the DHA Microbiology Laboratory exam?
55%. DHA publishes the pass score for each exam, and 55% is the figure for Medical Microbiology Technologist (MIC5691) in the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. The result is posted to your Sheryan account as Pass or Fail only - your score is not shared.
How many questions are in the DHA Microbiology Laboratory exam, and how long is it?
150 multiple-choice questions in 3 hours, and the time includes registration and the introduction. It is a computer-based test delivered by Prometric at test centres in the UAE and abroad.
How much does the DHA Microbiology Laboratory exam cost?
USD 240 (about AED 880) per attempt, paid again for every re-sit. DHA also charges a flat AED 200 credentialing fee through Sheryan.
How many attempts do I get?
Three in total across all the UAE authorities (DHA, DOH, MOHAP and SHA), not three each, under clause 1.5.5 of the Unified PQR. The PQR's 2024 update allows one further attempt with a different authority, except on the Consultant route.
Does this cover DHA, DOH, MOHAP and SCFHS?
Yes. The clinical content examined is substantially the same across the GCC authorities; what differs is the delivery vendor, the pass mark and the local-regulation slice. Each paper includes a route table showing how this profession is assessed by all seven authorities.
How do I receive it?
As PDF files. Card checkout is being set up, so for now you request it from this page and we send it to you directly, usually the same day.

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