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Pediatrics Prometric exam questions

Exam-length papers covering every published domain for Pediatrics.

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For DHA · DOH · MOHAP · SHA · SCFHS · QCHP · NHRA · OMSBDHA PED5391OMSB OEPEDSPass mark DHA 70% · SCFHS 65% · QCHP 65% · OMSB 65%From 3 papers · ~170 Qs each
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What is riding on this exam

~AED 1,030
DHA exam fee, per attempt
Paid again on every re-sit. Other regulators' fees are in the table below.
3
UAE attempts - in total
Shared across DHA, DOH, MOHAP and SHA, not three each. Saudi, Qatar, Oman and Kuwait rules are in the FAQ.
65-70%
Pass mark, by regulator
DHA 70%, SCFHS 65%, QCHP 65%, OMSB 65%. Other regulators in the table below.

One failed attempt costs you the fee again, plus months of delay on your licence, your visa and your start date. This bank costs about a third of one exam fee.

Every regulator: format, pass marks and fees for all GCC licensing exams, each from the regulator's own documents.

The Pediatrics exam at a glance

DHA (UAE) publishes a Pediatrics exam of 150 MCQs in 3 hours with a 70% pass mark; DOH (UAE) publishes a Pediatrics exam of 100 MCQs in 2 hours, scored pass or fail; SCFHS (Saudi Arabia) publishes a Pediatrics exam of 200 MCQs in 240 minutes with a 65% pass mark; QCHP (Qatar) publishes a Pediatrics exam of 150 MCQs in 3 hours with a 65% pass mark; OMSB (Oman) publishes a Pediatrics exam of 100 MCQs in 150 minutes with a 65% pass mark. MOHAP, SHA, NHRA do not publish Pediatrics-specific figures; their regulator-wide format and pass-mark rules are in the full table. Kuwait MOH publishes no exam for this title.

DHA · UAE
Specialist Pediatrics (PED5391)
150 MCQs in 3 hours · pass mark 70% · USD 280 (about AED 1,030) · checked September 2026
DOH · UAE
Specialist Pediatrics CBT
100 MCQs in 2 hours · pass mark Pass / fail only · AED 550 · checked October 2026
SCFHS · Saudi Arabia
Saudi Classification Examination - Pediatrics
200 MCQs in 240 minutes · pass mark 65% · checked October 2026
QCHP · Qatar
Specialist Pediatrics
150 MCQs in 3 hours · pass mark 65% · checked September 2026
OMSB · Oman
Omani Examination for Pediatrics (OEPEDS)
100 MCQs in 150 minutes · pass mark 65% · USD 220 (about OMR 80) · checked September 2026

From each regulator's own exam documents; the DHA row is from the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. Every other regulator is in the full GCC table.

Try two questions from this bank

Original questions from the bank - pick an answer to see the rationale and reference.

Q1Professionalism, Ethics, Patient Safety, Preventive & Community Pediatrics

Parents of a healthy 18-month-old, weight 11 kg and height 82 cm, ask when to turn his car seat to face forward. What is the most appropriate advice?

Choose an answer to see the rationale.

Q2Growth, Development, Adolescent Medicine & Behavioral Pediatrics

According to current preventive care recommendations, from what age should all adolescents be screened routinely for major depressive disorder using a validated instrument at health supervision visits?

Choose an answer to see the rationale.

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What's inside

  • ✓3 to 6 full-length papers (~170 Q each)
  • ✓No question repeated between papers
  • ✓Four options, one unambiguous best answer
  • ✓A full rationale on every question
  • ✓A real guideline or textbook reference
  • ✓Every sub-topic in the published blueprint
  • ✓Researched by Neelim's exam research team
  • ✓Prepared for your authority's exam, not a generic set

The Pediatrics exam in every GCC country

Pediatrics licensing exam in every GCC country
RegulatorExamFormatPass markFee per attempt
Specialist Pediatrics (PED5391)
150 MCQs in 3 hours70%USD 280 (about AED 1,030)
DOH
Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra
Practise →
Specialist Pediatrics CBT
100 MCQs in 2 hoursPass / fail onlyAED 550
SCFHS
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
Practise →
Saudi Classification Examination - Pediatrics
200 MCQs in 240 minutes65%Not published
QCHP
State of Qatar
Practise →
Specialist Pediatrics
150 MCQs in 3 hours65%Not published
OMSB
Sultanate of Oman
Practise →
Omani Examination for Pediatrics (OEPEDS)
100 MCQs in 150 minutes65%USD 220 (about OMR 80)
MOHAP
Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah
Practise →
MOHAP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-basedNot publishedNot published
SHA
Emirate of Sharjah
Practise →
SHA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Set at assessmentNot publishedNot published
NHRA
Kingdom of Bahrain
Practise →
NHRA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Prometric CBTNot publishedNot published
Kuwait MOH
State of Kuwait
Practise →
No exam published for this title
Kuwait MOH publishes no exam for this title; check with the MOH
Not publishedNot publishedNot published

Highlighted rows publish figures for this exact Pediatrics exam; the others show the regulator's general rules.

From each regulator's own exam pages; anything a regulator does not publish says so. Assessment mode also depends on your licence title, so confirm your route on your eligibility notice.

Try 15 free Pediatrics questions with answersDifferent from the samples on this page - each with a full explanationStart →

What the Pediatrics exam covers

The published blueprint for this exam breaks into 13 domains and 258 testable sub-topics. Our bank covers every one of them - here is the full map, so you can see exactly what you are expected to know.

Growth, Development, Adolescent Medicine & Behavioral Pediatrics~8% (est.)20 topics
  • Normal growth: WHO/CDC growth charts, plotting, mid-parental height, growth velocity
  • Failure to thrive: organic vs non-organic causes, evaluation and refeeding
  • Short stature: constitutional delay, familial, GH deficiency, Turner syndrome, bone-age interpretation
  • Tall stature and overgrowth syndromes (Marfan, Sotos, Beckwith-Wiedemann)
  • Developmental milestones: gross motor, fine motor, language, social/adaptive by age
  • Developmental delay and global developmental delay: red flags and first-line workup
  • +14 more in the bank
Neonatology & Perinatal Medicine (NICU)~9% (est.)20 topics
  • Neonatal resuscitation (NRP algorithm), delayed cord clamping, thermoregulation
  • APGAR scoring, gestational-age assessment (Ballard) and classification (SGA/AGA/LGA)
  • Respiratory distress syndrome, surfactant therapy and antenatal steroids
  • Transient tachypnea of the newborn, meconium aspiration, pneumothorax and air leak
  • Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn and inhaled nitric oxide
  • Bronchopulmonary dysplasia and chronic lung disease of prematurity
  • +14 more in the bank
Acute Care, Pediatric Emergency & Critical Care (PICU)~10% (est.)20 topics
  • Pediatric Advanced Life Support: recognition of respiratory failure and shock, PALS algorithms
  • Cardiopulmonary arrest, rhythm recognition, defibrillation and drug dosing by weight
  • Airway management: bag-mask, rapid sequence intubation, ETT sizing, difficult airway in children
  • Shock: hypovolaemic, septic, cardiogenic, distributive, obstructive - fluid boluses and inotropes
  • Sepsis and septic shock bundles, surviving-sepsis pediatric guidelines
  • Status asthmaticus: escalation from salbutamol to magnesium, aminophylline and ventilation
  • +14 more in the bank
Infectious Diseases, Immunology & Allergy~10% (est.)21 topics
  • Fever without a source and fever in the neonate/young infant: risk stratification and workup
  • Fever of unknown origin in children
  • Meningitis and encephalitis: CSF interpretation, empiric therapy, dexamethasone, complications
  • Sepsis and bacteraemia; occult bacteraemia in the vaccinated child
  • Common exanthems: measles, rubella, varicella, roseola, erythema infectiosum, hand-foot-and-mouth, scarlet fever
  • Group A streptococcal pharyngitis, Centor/McIsaac use, rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal GN
  • +15 more in the bank
Respiratory Medicine~8% (est.)18 topics
  • Asthma: GINA-based classification, controller step-up/step-down, inhaler technique and spacers
  • Asthma action plans, adherence and trigger avoidance
  • Bronchiolitis: RSV, supportive care, high-flow oxygen, palivizumab/nirsevimab prophylaxis
  • Community-acquired pneumonia: aetiology by age, imaging, oral vs IV antibiotics
  • Complicated pneumonia: empyema, parapneumonic effusion, lung abscess and drainage
  • Croup, stridor and the noisy-breathing infant (laryngomalacia, tracheomalacia, vascular ring)
  • +12 more in the bank
Cardiovascular Medicine~7% (est.)20 topics
  • Innocent vs pathological murmurs and the approach to a murmur by age
  • Acyanotic congenital heart disease: VSD, ASD, PDA, AVSD, coarctation, aortic/pulmonary stenosis
  • Cyanotic congenital heart disease: tetralogy of Fallot, TGA, TAPVR, truncus, tricuspid atresia, HLHS
  • Duct-dependent lesions, prostaglandin E1 and the collapsed neonate
  • Hyperoxia test, CCHD pulse-oximetry screening and cyanosis differential
  • Tet spells: recognition and stepwise management
  • +14 more in the bank
Gastroenterology, Hepatology & Nutrition~8% (est.)20 topics
  • Acute gastroenteritis: rotavirus, oral rehydration, zinc, antiemetics and antibiotic indications
  • Chronic diarrhoea and malabsorption: coeliac disease, giardiasis, toddler's diarrhoea
  • Constipation and functional faecal retention; disimpaction and maintenance therapy
  • Hirschsprung disease vs functional constipation; rectal biopsy
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux vs GERD in infants; thickened feeds, PPIs and red flags
  • Vomiting in infancy: pyloric stenosis, malrotation with volvulus, intussusception
  • +14 more in the bank
Endocrinology, Metabolic Disease & Genetics~8% (est.)20 topics
  • Type 1 diabetes mellitus: presentation, insulin regimens, pumps/CGM, sick-day rules
  • Type 2 diabetes and monogenic diabetes (MODY) in youth
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis and hypoglycaemia management
  • Congenital hypothyroidism and acquired hypothyroidism/Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • Hyperthyroidism and Graves disease in children; neonatal thyrotoxicosis
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, salt-wasting crisis and disorders of sex development
  • +14 more in the bank
Hematology & Oncology~7% (est.)20 topics
  • Iron deficiency anaemia: causes, investigation, oral iron therapy and prevention
  • Thalassaemia major/intermedia and alpha thalassaemia: transfusion, chelation, HSCT
  • Sickle cell disease: vaso-occlusive crisis, acute chest syndrome, splenic sequestration, stroke, hydroxyurea
  • G6PD deficiency and hereditary spherocytosis; haemolytic anaemia workup
  • Aplastic anaemia, Diamond-Blackfan anaemia, transient erythroblastopenia of childhood
  • Megaloblastic anaemia: B12 and folate deficiency
  • +14 more in the bank
Nephrology, Urology, Fluids & Electrolytes~7% (est.)19 topics
  • Maintenance fluids (Holliday-Segar), isotonic vs hypotonic fluids and deficit replacement
  • Hyponatraemia and hypernatraemia: causes, correction rates and complications
  • Hyperkalaemia and hypokalaemia; ECG changes and emergency management
  • Acid-base disorders and anion gap interpretation in children
  • Nephrotic syndrome: minimal change disease, steroid therapy, relapse, complications
  • Acute glomerulonephritis: post-streptococcal, IgA nephropathy, membranoproliferative
  • +13 more in the bank
Neurology & Neurodevelopmental Disorders~7% (est.)19 topics
  • Febrile seizures: simple vs complex, parental counselling and recurrence risk
  • Epilepsy syndromes: absence, benign rolandic, juvenile myoclonic, infantile spasms/West, Lennox-Gastaut, Dravet
  • Antiseizure medication selection, monitoring, teratogenicity and ketogenic diet
  • Status epilepticus and non-convulsive status
  • Cerebral palsy: classification (GMFCS), spasticity management and multidisciplinary care
  • Neural tube defects, hydrocephalus, VP shunt and shunt malfunction
  • +13 more in the bank
Musculoskeletal, Rheumatology, Dermatology & ENT/Eye~5% (est.)20 topics
  • The limping child: age-based differential and urgent exclusions
  • Developmental dysplasia of the hip: Barlow/Ortolani, ultrasound, harness treatment
  • Perthes disease, slipped capital femoral epiphysis and transient synovitis
  • Septic arthritis and osteomyelitis vs reactive arthritis
  • Juvenile idiopathic arthritis: subtypes, uveitis screening, methotrexate and biologics
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus, juvenile dermatomyositis and scleroderma in children
  • +14 more in the bank
Professionalism, Ethics, Patient Safety, Preventive & Community Pediatrics~6% (est.)21 topics
  • Consent and assent in minors; parental authority and the mature-minor concept
  • Adolescent confidentiality and its limits; disclosure to parents
  • Breaking bad news to families and communicating with children at their developmental level
  • Child abuse and neglect: physical, sexual, emotional, Munchausen by proxy; recognition and mandatory reporting
  • UAE/GCC child protection law and reporting pathways (Wadeema Law and equivalents)
  • End-of-life care, do-not-resuscitate decisions, palliative care and withdrawal of treatment in children
  • +15 more in the bank

12 worked Pediatrics practice questions

Original exam-style questions from the bank, spread across the blueprint domains. They are not real or recalled exam questions. Try each one, then open the answer for the rationale and reference. None of them appear in the free mock exam, so reading them will not spoil it.

  1. Question 1 · Acute Care, Pediatric Emergency & Critical Care (PICU)

    A 12-year-old in status asthmaticus is intubated for exhaustion and ventilated. Minutes later his blood pressure falls to 70/40 mmHg, saturations drop and peak inspiratory pressures rise sharply. Breath sounds are symmetrically reduced and the trachea is central. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

    1. AIncrease the ventilator respiratory rate to improve carbon dioxide clearance
    2. BGive a further 20 mL/kg fluid bolus and start adrenaline infusion
    3. CDisconnect the child from the ventilator and apply gentle manual chest compression to allow full exhalation
    4. DPerform immediate bilateral needle thoracocentesis
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Disconnect the child from the ventilator and apply gentle manual chest compression to allow full exhalation

    This picture is classic dynamic hyperinflation with breath stacking and auto-PEEP, which impedes venous return and causes hypotension; disconnecting the circuit and allowing prolonged exhalation, aided by chest compression, is both diagnostic and immediately therapeutic. Increasing the rate shortens expiratory time and worsens the problem. Tension pneumothorax is a differential but breath sounds are symmetrical and the trachea central, so blind bilateral needle decompression is not the first move; fluids and inotropes address the consequence rather than the cause.

    Reference: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 21st Edition (2020), Mechanical Ventilation in Status Asthmaticus

  2. Question 2 · Neonatology & Perinatal Medicine (NICU)

    An infant born at 26 weeks of gestation weighing 780 g is stable in the neonatal unit. When should the first retinopathy of prematurity screening examination be performed?

    1. AAt 4 weeks of chronological age, that is 30 weeks postmenstrual age
    2. BAt 31 weeks postmenstrual age
    3. CAt 36 weeks postmenstrual age or at discharge, whichever is sooner
    4. DOnly if the infant has required more than 28 days of supplemental oxygen
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. At 31 weeks postmenstrual age

    For infants born at 22 to 27 weeks of gestation the first retinopathy of prematurity examination is scheduled at 31 weeks postmenstrual age, whereas infants born at 28 weeks or later are first examined at 4 weeks of chronological age. Screening is offered on the basis of gestational age of 30 weeks or less or birth weight of 1500 g or less, or on clinician judgement for larger unstable infants, and is not conditional on the duration of oxygen therapy. Examinations continue at intervals determined by the findings until the retina is fully vascularised or the criteria for regression are met.

    Reference: American Academy of Pediatrics, American Academy of Ophthalmology and AAPOS joint Screening Examination of Premature Infants for Retinopathy of Prematurity, Pediatrics 2018

  3. Question 3 · Respiratory Medicine

    A 5-year-old with pneumococcal pneumonia remains febrile and hypoxic on day 4 of intravenous antibiotics. Ultrasound shows a large right pleural collection with dense septations and loculation occupying more than half the hemithorax. What is the most appropriate next step?

    1. AContinue intravenous antibiotics alone for a further 72 hours
    2. BPerform a single diagnostic and therapeutic needle thoracentesis
    3. CInsert a chest drain and give intrapleural fibrinolytic therapy
    4. DProceed directly to open thoracotomy and decortication
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Insert a chest drain and give intrapleural fibrinolytic therapy

    A large, septated (fibrinopurulent-stage) empyema causing ongoing fever and respiratory compromise requires drainage; small-bore chest tube insertion with intrapleural fibrinolytics such as urokinase or alteplase is the recommended first-line intervention and has outcomes equivalent to video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery at lower cost and morbidity. Antibiotics alone will not clear a loculated collection, simple thoracentesis cannot drain septated fluid durably, and open thoracotomy is reserved for failure of drainage plus fibrinolysis or VATS.

    Reference: British Thoracic Society Guidelines for the Management of Pleural Infection in Children (Thorax, 2005) and subsequent randomised trials of intrapleural urokinase; Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 22nd edition

  4. Question 4 · Endocrinology, Metabolic Disease & Genetics

    A 9-year-old boy has short stature, a broad webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, pectus excavatum, bilateral ptosis with hypertelorism and low-set posteriorly rotated ears. Echocardiography shows moderate valvular pulmonary stenosis with a thickened dysplastic pulmonary valve, and his karyotype is 46,XY. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. ATurner syndrome with 45,X/46,XY mosaicism
    2. BNoonan syndrome
    3. CWilliams syndrome
    4. DKlinefelter syndrome
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Noonan syndrome

    Noonan syndrome, most often caused by a gain-of-function PTPN11 variant in the RAS-MAPK pathway, produces short stature, a webbed neck, chest deformity, ptosis and characteristically a dysplastic pulmonary valve or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, with a normal karyotype in a phenotypic male. Turner syndrome requires an abnormal karyotype and is typically associated with bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation rather than a dysplastic pulmonary valve. Williams syndrome causes supravalvular aortic stenosis with a distinctive sociable personality and infantile hypercalcaemia, and Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) causes tall stature with hypogonadism, not short stature with a webbed neck.

    Reference: Roberts et al., Noonan syndrome, The Lancet, 2013; Smith's Recognizable Patterns of Human Malformation, 8th edition (2022)

  5. Question 5 · Hematology & Oncology

    A 13-year-old girl presents with fatigue, gum bleeding and extensive bruising. White cell count is 3.2 x10^9/L with abnormal promyelocytes containing multiple Auer rods, platelets 18 x10^9/L, fibrinogen 0.7 g/L, prolonged PT and raised D-dimer. Molecular testing confirms PML-RARA fusion. Which action is most urgent?

    1. AImmediate leukapheresis
    2. BStart all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) without waiting for full cytogenetic confirmation, with aggressive blood product support
    3. CStart high-dose cytarabine induction chemotherapy
    4. DAdminister intrathecal methotrexate for central nervous system prophylaxis
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Start all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) without waiting for full cytogenetic confirmation, with aggressive blood product support

    This is acute promyelocytic leukaemia with life-threatening coagulopathy, where early death from haemorrhage is the principal risk. ATRA should be started as soon as the diagnosis is suspected clinically or morphologically, alongside aggressive transfusion of platelets and cryoprecipitate/fibrinogen, because it rapidly reverses the coagulopathy. Leukapheresis is contraindicated in APL as it can worsen the coagulopathy, conventional intensive chemotherapy or intrathecal therapy before correcting coagulopathy increases bleeding risk, and neither addresses the immediate threat.

    Reference: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 21st ed. (2020); European LeukemiaNet recommendations for the management of acute promyelocytic leukemia (2019)

  6. Question 6 · Neurology & Neurodevelopmental Disorders

    A 10-year-old girl has a confirmed diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis complex with a pathogenic TSC2 variant, facial angiofibromas, cortical tubers and well-controlled epilepsy. She is asymptomatic at her annual review. Which surveillance investigation is specifically recommended as part of her routine long-term follow-up?

    1. AAbdominal MRI every one to three years to detect renal angiomyolipoma and cysts
    2. BAnnual bone marrow aspiration
    3. CAnnual colonoscopy from age 10 years
    4. DAnnual thyroid ultrasonography
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Abdominal MRI every one to three years to detect renal angiomyolipoma and cysts

    Renal angiomyolipoma is the leading cause of death in adults with tuberous sclerosis complex because of haemorrhage risk, so consensus surveillance includes abdominal MRI every one to three years throughout life, alongside serial brain MRI for subependymal giant cell astrocytoma until at least age 25, blood pressure and renal function checks, routine EEG, dermatological and ophthalmological review, and neuropsychiatric (TAND) screening. Bone marrow examination, colonoscopy and thyroid ultrasound are not part of tuberous sclerosis surveillance. mTOR inhibitors such as everolimus are used for growing angiomyolipomas and giant cell astrocytomas.

    Reference: Krueger DA & Northrup H, International Tuberous Sclerosis Complex Consensus Group surveillance and management recommendations (Pediatric Neurology, 2013; updated 2021)

  7. Question 7 · Musculoskeletal, Rheumatology, Dermatology & ENT/Eye

    A 9-year-old boy has had constant thoracic back pain for 7 weeks that wakes him at night. He has lost 3 kg, walks with a stiff, guarded spine, and has an area of localised tenderness over T8. Which is the most appropriate next investigation?

    1. AReassurance and a postural exercise programme
    2. BUrgent MRI of the whole spine
    3. CBone densitometry (DXA)
    4. DStanding scoliosis radiograph only
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Urgent MRI of the whole spine

    Back pain in a prepubertal child that is persistent, nocturnal, focally tender and accompanied by weight loss and spinal rigidity carries a high probability of serious pathology such as infection (discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis, tuberculosis), malignancy or a spinal cord lesion, so urgent MRI of the whole spine is required. Reassurance and exercise are appropriate only for mechanical pain without red flags, DXA addresses bone density rather than a focal lesion, and a plain scoliosis film is insensitive for early infection and marrow infiltration.

    Reference: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 22nd ed. (Elsevier, 2024); RCPCH/NICE guidance on red flags in childhood back pain

  8. Question 8 · Infectious Diseases, Immunology & Allergy

    A 9-year-old boy who acquired hepatitis B perinatally is reviewed. He is asymptomatic with a normal examination. HBsAg is positive, HBeAg positive, anti-HBe negative, HBV DNA is very high, and ALT is persistently normal on repeated testing. Liver ultrasound is normal. What is the most appropriate management?

    1. AStart pegylated interferon alfa immediately
    2. BStart tenofovir monotherapy immediately
    3. CContinue regular monitoring of ALT, HBV DNA and HBeAg status without antiviral therapy at present
    4. DGive a booster course of hepatitis B vaccine to induce seroconversion
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Continue regular monitoring of ALT, HBV DNA and HBeAg status without antiviral therapy at present

    HBeAg positivity with very high HBV DNA and persistently normal ALT describes the immune-tolerant phase of chronic hepatitis B, in which antiviral therapy achieves poor rates of sustained response and is not recommended; regular surveillance for transition to the immune-active phase is the correct approach. Interferon and nucleos(t)ide analogues are indicated when ALT is persistently elevated with evidence of necroinflammation or fibrosis, and vaccination does not treat established infection.

    Reference: AASLD Hepatitis B Guidance (2018); ESPGHAN position paper on chronic hepatitis B in children (2013); EASL Clinical Practice Guidelines on HBV (2017)

  9. Question 9 · Growth, Development, Adolescent Medicine & Behavioral Pediatrics

    A 13-year-old boy has a BMI on the 98th percentile and acanthosis nigricans over the posterior neck. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Which set of investigations is the most appropriate comorbidity screen?

    1. AFasting glucose or HbA1c, fasting lipid profile and ALT
    2. BSerum cortisol, growth hormone stimulation test and karyotype
    3. CThyroid ultrasound and antithyroid antibodies
    4. DAbdominal CT and fasting insulin only
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Fasting glucose or HbA1c, fasting lipid profile and ALT

    Guidelines recommend screening every child aged 10 years or older with obesity for dysglycaemia (fasting glucose, HbA1c or oral glucose tolerance test), dyslipidaemia (fasting lipid panel) and metabolic dysfunction-associated fatty liver disease (ALT), together with blood pressure measurement. Endocrine and genetic causes are pursued only when growth is decelerating or there is dysmorphism or developmental delay, since obese children with an endogenous cause are typically short. Thyroid imaging and abdominal CT are not screening tests, and isolated fasting insulin is not recommended.

    Reference: Hampl SE et al., AAP Clinical Practice Guideline for the Evaluation and Treatment of Children and Adolescents With Obesity (Pediatrics, 2023)

  10. Question 10 · Gastroenterology, Hepatology & Nutrition

    A 9-month-old, exclusively breastfed by a mother following a strict vegan diet without supplementation, presents with pallor, hypotonia, developmental regression and irritability. Haemoglobin is 8 g/dL with an MCV of 105 fL and hypersegmented neutrophils. Which deficiency is most likely?

    1. AIron deficiency
    2. BVitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency
    3. CZinc deficiency
    4. DVitamin A deficiency
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency

    Infantile cobalamin deficiency from an unsupplemented vegan maternal diet classically causes megaloblastic (macrocytic) anaemia with hypersegmented neutrophils together with hypotonia, irritability and developmental regression, and it requires prompt B12 replacement to limit neurological sequelae. Iron deficiency produces a microcytic, not macrocytic, anaemia. Zinc deficiency causes acrodermatitis-like perioral and perianal rash with diarrhoea, and vitamin A deficiency causes xerophthalmia and night blindness rather than macrocytosis.

    Reference: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 22nd ed.; WHO/UNICEF guidance on vitamin and mineral deficiencies in infancy

  11. Question 11 · Cardiovascular Medicine

    A 7-month-old infant has had fever for 7 days with no identified source. The only clinical finding is bilateral bulbar conjunctival injection. CRP is 95 mg/L, ESR 68 mm/h, platelets 620 x 10^9/L, albumin 28 g/L, ALT 90 U/L, and urinalysis shows 15 white cells per high-power field with a sterile culture. What is the most appropriate next step?

    1. AContinue observation and repeat inflammatory markers in 72 hours
    2. BTreat empirically for urinary tract infection with intravenous antibiotics only
    3. CObtain an echocardiogram and treat as incomplete Kawasaki disease
    4. DPerform a bone marrow aspirate to exclude leukaemia
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Obtain an echocardiogram and treat as incomplete Kawasaki disease

    Infants under 12 months frequently present with incomplete Kawasaki disease and are at the highest risk of coronary aneurysms, so unexplained fever of 7 days or more with raised CRP or ESR plus three or more supplemental laboratory findings (anaemia, platelets 450 x 10^9/L or more after day 7, albumin 30 g/L or less, elevated ALT, sterile pyuria, white cells 15 x 10^9/L or more) warrants echocardiography and treatment. Sterile pyuria is part of the Kawasaki picture rather than evidence of urinary infection, and delaying treatment for observation forfeits the therapeutic window. There is nothing here to suggest leukaemia.

    Reference: AHA Scientific Statement: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Long-Term Management of Kawasaki Disease, Circulation (2017)

  12. Question 12 · Hematology & Oncology

    A 13-year-old girl presents with facial and neck swelling, distended neck veins, cough and orthopnoea that worsens when she lies flat. Chest radiograph shows a large anterior mediastinal mass with tracheal narrowing and a moderate right pleural effusion. Which approach to obtaining a tissue diagnosis is safest?

    1. AGeneral anaesthesia with supine thoracotomy and open biopsy of the mass
    2. BLeast invasive sampling first, such as pleural fluid cytology or peripheral blood/bone marrow, under local anaesthesia with the patient upright
    3. CImmediate empiric corticosteroids for 72 hours before any attempt at tissue sampling
    4. DRigid bronchoscopy under deep sedation to biopsy the airway
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Least invasive sampling first, such as pleural fluid cytology or peripheral blood/bone marrow, under local anaesthesia with the patient upright

    Superior vena cava syndrome with a large anterior mediastinal mass carries a serious risk of cardiorespiratory collapse under general anaesthesia or deep sedation, because loss of muscle tone and the supine position can cause complete airway or great-vessel compression that cannot be relieved. The safest strategy is to obtain diagnostic material by the least invasive route under local anaesthesia with the patient upright, such as pleural fluid cytology, peripheral blood, bone marrow or a peripheral node. Empiric steroids or radiotherapy are reserved for a critically compromised child in whom no tissue can be obtained, because they can obscure the histological diagnosis.

    Reference: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 21st ed. (2020); Children's Oncology Group guidance on the anterior mediastinal mass

Pediatrics reference books and guidelines

Every question in this bank names the textbook or guideline its answer rests on. These are the sources our Pediatrics questions cite most often - the reading list to revise from alongside the bank.

Textbooks

4
  1. 1

    Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics

    22nd edition2024
  2. 2

    Park's Pediatric Cardiology for Practitioners

    7th edition2021
  3. 3

    Smith's Recognizable Patterns of Human Malformation

    8th edition2022
  4. 4

    Volpe's Neurology of the Newborn

    6th edition2018

Guidelines and standards

10
  1. 1

    ISPAD Clinical Practice Consensus Guidelines

    2022
  2. 2

    WHO Guideline: Updates on the Management of Severe Acute Malnutrition in Infants and Children

    2013
  3. 3

    NICE Nutrition Support in Adults (refeeding criteria applied in paediatric practice)

    CG32
  4. 4

    CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions

    2007
  5. 5

    ARIA (Allergic Rhinitis and its Impact on Asthma) Guidelines

    2020
  6. 6

    AAO-HNS Clinical Practice Guideline: Allergic Rhinitis

    2015
  7. 7

    AAP Clinical Practice Guideline: Tobacco and Nicotine Cessation and Prevention in Children and Adolescents (Pediatrics)

    2023
  8. 8

    Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline on Primary Adrenal Insufficiency

    2016
  9. 9

    Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA)

    2024
  10. 10

    AHA Scientific Statement on Infective Endocarditis in Childhood

    2015

Where your regulator publishes a reading list, use the editions it names. Exam questions are not taken from any one book.

Last reviewed September 2026

About these questions: every question is original, researched by Neelim's exam research team, written to the published blueprint, with a rationale and a reference. No recalled or leaked exam content is used. How we write our questions.

Frequently asked questions

Are these real Pediatrics exam questions?
No. Every item is original, researched by Neelim's exam research team against the exam blueprint published by the health authorities. Real, recalled or leaked exam content breaches the testing bodies' rules and can lead to a permanent exam ban - we do not sell it, and neither should anyone else.
How many questions are in the Pediatrics bank?
Every bank starts at 3 full-length papers of roughly 170 questions each (the DHA exam itself is 150 questions), and you can add papers up to 6, including a bonus paper of our hardest questions. The papers do not overlap, so every question is new, and together they cover every sub-topic in the published blueprint.
What is the pass mark for the DHA Pediatrics exam?
70%. DHA publishes the pass score for each exam, and 70% is the figure for Specialist Pediatrics (PED5391) in the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. The result is posted to your Sheryan account as Pass or Fail only - your score is not shared. Elsewhere in the GCC: DOH Pass / fail only, SCFHS 65%, QCHP 65%, OMSB 65%.
How many questions are in the DHA Pediatrics exam, and how long is it?
150 multiple-choice questions in 3 hours, and the time includes registration and the introduction. It is a computer-based test delivered by Prometric at test centres in the UAE and abroad.
How much does the DHA Pediatrics exam cost?
USD 280 (about AED 1,030) per attempt, paid again for every re-sit. DHA also charges a flat AED 200 credentialing fee through Sheryan.
How many attempts do I get?
In the UAE, three in total across DHA, DOH, MOHAP and SHA, not three each, under clause 1.5.4 of the Unified PQR (April 2025). Clause 1.5.5 allows one further attempt with a different authority, except on the Consultant route. Elsewhere in the GCC: SCFHS up to 4 a year, QCHP 5 per scope, OMSB no set maximum, Kuwait MOH 3, 6 weeks apart.
Does this cover DHA, DOH, MOHAP, SCFHS and the other GCC regulators?
Yes, and it is not a generic set. Tell us which regulator you are sitting and we send the bank prepared for that authority's exam: its blueprint, its exam length and pass mark, and its local regulations. The core clinical knowledge is shared across the GCC; what changes by regulator is the test vendor (Prometric for DHA, SCFHS, QCHP, NHRA, Kuwait MOH; Pearson VUE for DOH, OMSB), the exam length, the pass mark, the local-regulation questions and, at some regulators such as DOH, an added oral or OSCE component. The table on this page shows each regulator's published format, pass mark and fee, and says where a figure is not published.
How do I receive it?
As PDF files. Card checkout is being set up, so for now you request it from this page and we send it to you directly, usually the same day.

Still unsure whether you even need this exam?

Your route depends on your profession, your licence title and the authority. We have guided over 1,000 professionals through GCC licensing - tell us your situation and we will confirm exactly what you need to sit.