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Nephrology Prometric exam questions with answers

15 original practice questions written to the Nephrology exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the Nephrology exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP and every other GCC regulator, from their own published rules.

15
Free questions
65%
DHA pass mark
150
Questions on the DHA exam
12
Questions in the free mock

Quick answer

The Nephrology exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours at DHA (pass mark 65%) and 150 MCQs in 3 hours at QCHP (pass mark 65%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 12-question timed mock.

The Nephrology exam in every GCC country

DHA, QCHP publish an exact Nephrology exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.

Nephrology licensing exam in every GCC country
RegulatorExamFormatPass markFee per attemptPractise
DHA
Dubai
Specialist Nephrology (NEP5991)150 MCQs in 3 hours65%USD 280 (about AED 1,030)DHA questions →
DOH
Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra
DOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Written + oral/OSCEPass / fail onlyNot publishedDOH questions →
MOHAP
Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah
MOHAP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-basedNot publishedNot publishedMOHAP questions →
SHA
Emirate of Sharjah
SHA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Set at assessmentNot publishedNot publishedSHA questions →
SCFHS
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
SCFHS licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
200 MCQs, 240 min500-560 of 800Not publishedSCFHS questions →
QCHP
State of Qatar
Specialist Nephrology150 MCQs in 3 hours65%Not publishedQCHP questions →
NHRA
Kingdom of Bahrain
NHRA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Prometric CBTNot publishedNot publishedNHRA questions →
OMSB
Sultanate of Oman
OMSB licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-based OC examNot publishedNot publishedOMSB questions →
Kuwait MOH
State of Kuwait
Kuwait MOH licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
150 MCQs, 170 min60-70%Not publishedKuwait MOH questions →

exact exam published for Nephrology

Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.

15 Nephrology exam questions with answers

Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.

  1. Question 1Acute Kidney Injurymedium

    An oliguric patient has urine sodium 10 mmol/L, plasma sodium 140 mmol/L, urine creatinine 8000 µmol/L and plasma creatinine 200 µmol/L. What is the FENa and its usual interpretation?

    1. A0.18%, suggesting prerenal azotemia
    2. B1.8%, suggesting tubular necrosis
    3. C0.18%, suggesting tubular necrosis
    4. D1.8%, suggesting prerenal azotemia
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. 0.18%, suggesting prerenal azotemia

    FENa = (UNa x PCr)/(PNa x UCr) x 100 = (10 x 200)/(140 x 8000) x 100 = 0.18%. A value below 1% suggests intact tubular sodium reabsorption, as in prerenal states; above 2% suggests tubular injury.

  2. Question 2Chronic Kidney Disease and Complicationshard

    In an adult on hemodialysis with raised phosphate, which approach is consistent with current KDIGO CKD-MBD guidance?

    1. ATarget a normal PTH with high-dose calcitriol
    2. BUse calcium carbonate to raise calcium to high-normal
    3. CAvoid any dietary phosphate counselling
    4. DRestrict the dose of calcium-based phosphate binders
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Restrict the dose of calcium-based phosphate binders

    KDIGO 2017 suggests restricting calcium-based binders because positive calcium balance is linked to vascular calcification. PTH in dialysis is kept around 2-9 times the upper normal limit, not normalised.

  3. Question 3Chronic Kidney Disease and Complicationsmedium

    A patient has eGFR 40 mL/min/1.73 m2 and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 45 mg/mmol, both persisting over 3 months. What is the KDIGO category?

    1. AG3a A2
    2. BG3b A2
    3. CG4 A3
    4. DG3b A3
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. G3b A3

    G3b covers eGFR 30-44 and A3 is ACR above 30 mg/mmol. G3a is 45-59 and A2 is 3-30 mg/mmol.

  4. Question 4Chronic Kidney Disease and Complicationsmedium

    A patient with CKD G4 has persistent serum bicarbonate of 16 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate management?

    1. AStart a loop diuretic
    2. BIncrease dietary animal protein
    3. CStart oral alkali therapy
    4. DNo treatment is required
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Start oral alkali therapy

    Bicarbonate below 18 mmol/L should prompt consideration of oral sodium bicarbonate or dietary change to prevent bone and muscle loss and possibly slow progression. More animal protein increases acid load.

  5. Question 5Glomerular Diseaseseasy

    A 9-year-old has cola-coloured urine, edema and hypertension 2 weeks after tonsillitis. Serum C3 is low and C4 is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. AIgA nephropathy with macroscopic flare
    2. BClass IV lupus nephritis
    3. CPost-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    4. DMinimal change nephropathy
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

    A latent period of 1-3 weeks after streptococcal infection with low C3 is typical of post-streptococcal GN. IgA nephropathy presents within days of infection and complement is normal.

  6. Question 6Dialysismedium

    A peritoneal dialysis patient has abdominal pain and cloudy effluent with 450 white cells/µL, 80% neutrophils. What is the recommended initial treatment?

    1. AOral antibiotics with Gram-positive cover only
    2. BIntraperitoneal antibiotics with broad Gram cover
    3. CImmediate catheter removal and transfer to hemodialysis
    4. DAwait effluent culture before giving any antibiotics
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Intraperitoneal antibiotics with broad Gram cover

    Effluent WBC above 100/µL with over 50% neutrophils indicates peritonitis; empirical intraperitoneal therapy covers both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms. Delaying antibiotics for culture worsens outcomes.

  7. Question 7Kidney Transplantationhard

    Six months after transplant, creatinine rises. Biopsy shows glomerulitis and peritubular capillaritis with C4d staining, and a new donor-specific antibody is detected. What is the diagnosis?

    1. AAcute T-cell-mediated rejection
    2. BCalcineurin inhibitor toxicity
    3. CActive antibody-mediated rejection
    4. DBK polyomavirus nephropathy
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Active antibody-mediated rejection

    Microvascular inflammation, C4d deposition and DSA satisfy Banff criteria for active antibody-mediated rejection. T-cell-mediated rejection features tubulitis and interstitial inflammation rather than capillaritis with C4d.

  8. Question 8Kidney Transplantationeasy

    Which donor/recipient CMV serostatus carries the highest risk of CMV disease after kidney transplantation?

    1. ADonor positive, recipient negative
    2. BDonor negative, recipient positive
    3. CDonor positive, recipient positive
    4. DDonor negative, recipient negative
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Donor positive, recipient negative

    A seronegative recipient of a seropositive kidney has no pre-existing immunity and the highest risk, and receives valganciclovir prophylaxis. D-/R- has the lowest risk.

Halfway - how are you scoring?

Test yourself under real exam conditions

The free 12-question mock is timed and scored against the pass mark, domain by domain, so you see exactly where you are losing marks. The full Nephrology bank has 3 full-length papers (about 450 questions) for AED 289, one-time.

  1. Question 9Fluid, Electrolytes and Acid-Basemedium

    A woman with Sjogren syndrome has normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, potassium 2.9 mmol/L, urine pH 6.5 and nephrocalcinosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. AProximal (type 2) renal tubular acidosis
    2. BType 4 renal tubular acidosis
    3. CDistal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis
    4. DDiarrhea-related bicarbonate loss
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Distal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis

    Inability to acidify urine below 5.5 despite systemic acidosis, hypokalemia and nephrocalcinosis characterise distal RTA, often seen in Sjogren syndrome. Type 4 RTA causes hyperkalemia.

  2. Question 10Glomerular Diseasesmedium

    A 24-year-old has visible hematuria 2 days after a sore throat, with normal complement and similar previous episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. APost-streptococcal GN
    2. BAnti-GBM disease
    3. CThin basement membrane disease
    4. DIgA nephropathy
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. IgA nephropathy

    Synpharyngitic hematuria with normal complement and recurrent episodes is the classic presentation of IgA nephropathy. Post-streptococcal GN follows after 1-3 weeks and lowers C3.

  3. Question 11Hypertension and Renovascular Diseasemedium

    A 45-year-old has hypertension on three drugs and potassium 3.1 mmol/L. What is the best screening test for the likely cause?

    1. A24-hour urine metanephrines
    2. BOvernight dexamethasone suppression
    3. CAldosterone-to-renin ratio
    4. DRenal artery Doppler
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Aldosterone-to-renin ratio

    Resistant hypertension with hypokalemia suggests primary aldosteronism, screened with the aldosterone-to-renin ratio. Metanephrines screen for pheochromocytoma, which usually presents with paroxysms rather than hypokalemia.

  4. Question 12Kidney Transplantationmedium

    A stable kidney transplant recipient on tacrolimus is prescribed clarithromycin for pneumonia. What is the expected effect?

    1. ALower tacrolimus levels with acute rejection risk
    2. BNo significant interaction
    3. CRaised mycophenolate levels only
    4. DRaised tacrolimus levels with nephrotoxicity risk
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Raised tacrolimus levels with nephrotoxicity risk

    Clarithromycin inhibits CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein, increasing tacrolimus levels and the risk of nephrotoxicity. Enzyme inducers such as rifampicin, not macrolides, lower tacrolimus levels.

  5. Question 13Kidney Transplantationmedium

    A transplant recipient has slowly rising creatinine, rising plasma BK viral load and SV40-positive tubular nuclei on biopsy. What is the main management?

    1. AReduce maintenance immunosuppression
    2. BIncrease tacrolimus target levels
    3. CStart high-dose glucocorticoids
    4. DStart valganciclovir treatment
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Reduce maintenance immunosuppression

    There is no proven antiviral for BK nephropathy; reducing immunosuppression lets immunity clear the virus. Increasing immunosuppression would worsen viral replication.

  6. Question 14Tubulointerstitial, Stones and Inherited Diseasemedium

    A man with gout passes a radiolucent stone; 24-hour urine pH is persistently 5.0. Which measure best prevents recurrence?

    1. AThiazide diuretic to lower urinary calcium excretion
    2. BStrict dietary calcium restriction
    3. CAcidification with ammonium chloride
    4. DUrinary alkalinisation with potassium citrate
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Urinary alkalinisation with potassium citrate

    Uric acid is poorly soluble in acid urine; raising urine pH to about 6.0-6.5 with potassium citrate prevents and can dissolve stones. Calcium restriction is not relevant to uric acid stones and raises oxalate stone risk.

  7. Question 15Tubulointerstitial, Stones and Inherited Diseasemedium

    A 35-year-old with ADPKD has enlarged kidneys and eGFR falling by 4 mL/min/1.73 m2 per year. Which drug is approved to slow progression?

    1. ASirolimus
    2. BTolvaptan
    3. CSpironolactone
    4. DAllopurinol
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Tolvaptan

    Tolvaptan, a vasopressin V2 receptor antagonist, slows kidney growth and eGFR decline in rapidly progressive ADPKD; liver tests must be monitored. mTOR inhibitors such as sirolimus did not show benefit in trials.

What the Nephrology exam covers

The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.

Acute Kidney Injury

~15%

KDIGO AKI definition and staging · Prerenal, intrinsic and postrenal causes; urinary indices · Contrast-associated and drug-induced nephrotoxicity

Chronic Kidney Disease and Complications

~15%

KDIGO CKD classification by GFR and albuminuria · Slowing progression · Anemia of CKD

Glomerular Diseases

~15%

Nephrotic syndrome · Nephritic syndrome · ANCA-associated vasculitis and pauci-immune GN

Fluid, Electrolytes and Acid-Base

~15%

Hyponatremia · Hyperkalemia emergency management · Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia

Dialysis

~12%

Vascular access · Hemodialysis adequacy · Intradialytic complications and disequilibrium syndrome

Kidney Transplantation

~12%

Recipient and donor evaluation, HLA and crossmatch · Immunosuppression and calcineurin inhibitor interactions · T-cell and antibody-mediated rejection; Banff criteria

Hypertension and Renovascular Disease

~8%

Hypertension in CKD · Primary aldosteronism and secondary hypertension screening · Atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis

Tubulointerstitial, Stones and Inherited Disease

~8%

Acute interstitial nephritis · Kidney stones · Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

How to answer these questions

1

Read the last line of the stem first, then the vignette: you will know whether it asks for a diagnosis, the next investigation or the next step in management.

2

"Most appropriate next step" means the next thing you would actually do, in order - stabilise, then confirm, then treat.

3

Specialist papers lean on current international guidelines; when an option sounds outdated, it usually is.

4

Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.

Nephrology exam questions: FAQs

How many questions are in the Nephrology Prometric exam?
It depends on the regulator: DHA 150 MCQs in 3 hours; QCHP 150 MCQs in 3 hours. The full table above lists every GCC regulator.
What is the pass mark for the Nephrology exam?
DHA: 65%; QCHP: 65%. Pass marks are set exam by exam, so use your own regulator's figure.
Are these real exam questions?
No. Regulators do not release their papers, and anything sold as a leaked paper is unofficial and risky to rely on. These are original questions written to the official exam blueprint, at the level and in the style of the real exam, each with a worked explanation.
Is the Nephrology exam the same in every GCC country?
The clinical content is broadly similar because the exams test the same safe practice, but the format, length, pass mark, attempts and fees differ by regulator. Prepare on the content once, then check your regulator's exact rules before you book.
How should I use these questions?
Answer each one before opening the explanation, and note why each wrong option is wrong. Then take the free 12-question timed mock to see your score against the pass mark, and move to full-length papers when you score comfortably above it.

Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.

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