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Genomic & Biotechnology Technician Prometric exam questions with answers

15 original practice questions written to the Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, MOHAP, SHA, SCFHS, QCHP, NHRA, OMSB and Kuwait MOH, from their own published rules.

15
Free questions
50%
SCFHS pass mark
150
Questions on the SCFHS exam
25
Questions in the free mock

Quick answer

The Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam is 150 MCQs in 180 minutes at SCFHS (pass mark 50%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 25-question timed mock.

The full Genomic & Biotechnology Technician bank: from 3 papers, ~150 questions each

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Every question with a rationale and a reference. PDF, lifetime access.

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The Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam in every GCC country

SCFHS publish an exact Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.

Genomic & Biotechnology Technician licensing exam in every GCC country
RegulatorExamFormatPass markFee per attempt
SCFHS
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
Practise →
Saudi Classification Examination - Genomic and Biotechnology Technician
150 MCQs in 180 minutes50%Not published
No exam published for this title
Not in the DHA CBT list; DHA's guideline assesses licensed titles that are not listed by oral
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
DOH
Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra
Practise →
No exam published for this title
DOH publishes no exam for this title that we could find; check with DOH
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
MOHAP
Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah
Practise →
No exam published for this title
MOHAP publishes no exam for this title that we could find; check with MOHAP
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
SHA
Emirate of Sharjah
Practise →
No exam published for this title
SHA publishes no exam for this title that we could find; check with SHA
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
QCHP
State of Qatar
Practise →
No exam published for this title
No DHP Qatar exam blueprint published for this title; check with DHP
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
NHRA
Kingdom of Bahrain
Practise →
No exam published for this title
NHRA publishes no exam for this title that we could find; check with NHRA
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
OMSB
Sultanate of Oman
Practise →
No exam published for this title
No OMSB exam published for this title; check with OMSB
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
Kuwait MOH
State of Kuwait
Practise →
No exam published for this title
Kuwait MOH publishes no exam for this title; check with the MOH
Not publishedNot publishedNot published

Highlighted rows publish figures for this exact Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam; the others show the regulator's general rules.

Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.

15 Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam questions with answers

Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.

  1. Question 1Basic Laboratory Skillsmedium

    A protocol calls for pipetting 50 microlitres of a viscous 50% glycerol solution accurately. Which technique helps most?

    1. AForward pipetting with fast plunger release to avoid bubbles
    2. BPipetting with a tip rinsed in ethanol before each draw
    3. CUsing a pipette set far above the target volume
    4. DReverse pipetting with a slow, steady plunger action
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Reverse pipetting with a slow, steady plunger action

    Reverse pipetting reduces error with viscous liquids because the liquid is not blown out fully, and slow handling lets it fill the tip. Fast release causes inaccurate volumes, ethanol contaminates the sample, and an unsuitable range reduces accuracy.

    Reference: Green and Sambrook, Molecular Cloning: A Laboratory Manual, 4th ed., 2012

  2. Question 2Bioinformaticshard

    A genome-wide association study tests about one million independent variants. Why is the usual significance threshold set near 5 x 10^-8?

    1. ABecause p-values smaller than 0.05 are not computed by software
    2. BTo make the study need far fewer samples than a smaller study would
    3. CBecause association studies are limited to testing rare variants
    4. DTo correct for multiple testing, so false positives stay rare
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. To correct for multiple testing, so false positives stay rare

    Testing many variants inflates false positives, so the threshold is tightened, roughly 0.05 divided by the number of independent tests. It does not reduce sample needs, and p-values below 0.05 are computable.

    Reference: Pe'er et al., Genetic Epidemiology 2008;32:381-385

  3. Question 3Bioinformaticsmedium

    Variants from a lab are on GRCh37 coordinates, but the annotation database uses GRCh38. What should be done before annotation?

    1. AAnnotate directly because coordinates are the same
    2. BDelete the position column
    3. CChange the chromosome names to lower case
    4. DConvert the coordinates with a tool such as liftOver or re-align to GRCh38
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Convert the coordinates with a tool such as liftOver or re-align to GRCh38

    Positions differ between builds, so variants must be converted or re-aligned. Using them directly gives wrong annotations, and removing columns or editing names does not fix it.

    Reference: Pevsner, Bioinformatics and Functional Genomics, 3rd ed., 2015

  4. Question 4Biotechnologymedium

    On a blue-white screening plate with X-gal and IPTG, a white colony usually indicates what?

    1. AThe cell lacks the plasmid and is antibiotic-sensitive
    2. BThe insert disrupted the lacZ alpha gene, so no blue product formed
    3. CThe cell is producing more beta-galactosidase than blue colonies
    4. DThe plasmid is empty and intact
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. The insert disrupted the lacZ alpha gene, so no blue product formed

    A DNA insert in the lacZ alpha region stops beta-galactosidase from cleaving X-gal, so colonies stay white. Cells without plasmid do not grow on selection, and an intact empty plasmid gives blue colonies.

    Reference: Green and Sambrook, Molecular Cloning: A Laboratory Manual, 4th ed., 2012

  5. Question 5Biotechnologyeasy

    Adherent cells have reached confluence. Which step belongs in routine subculture?

    1. AScrape the cells with a metal blade and freeze the whole flask at once
    2. BDetach with trypsin-EDTA, neutralise with serum medium and reseed
    3. CAdd more fresh medium on top of the cells without detaching them first
    4. DHeat the flask to 56 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes before reseeding
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Detach with trypsin-EDTA, neutralise with serum medium and reseed

    Trypsin-EDTA lifts adherent cells, serum neutralises it and reseeding at lower density restores growth. Scraping, doing nothing and heating are not standard subculture.

    Reference: Freshney, Culture of Animal Cells, 7th ed., 2016

  6. Question 6Biotechnologymedium

    A recombinant protein with a six-histidine tag is purified from lysate. Which method is typical?

    1. ASize selection by agarose gel electrophoresis followed by gel extraction
    2. BIon exchange chromatography run at the isoelectric point of the protein
    3. CPrecipitation with ethanol followed by a spin
    4. DImmobilised metal affinity chromatography, with elution by imidazole
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Immobilised metal affinity chromatography, with elution by imidazole

    A His tag binds nickel or cobalt resin, and imidazole competes to release the protein. Agarose gels separate nucleic acids, ion exchange is a different principle, and ethanol precipitation is not specific.

    Reference: Protein Purification Techniques: A Practical Approach, 2nd ed.

  7. Question 7Biotechnologymedium

    A cell culture shows no turbidity or visible microbes, but cells grow slowly and look unhealthy. Which contaminant should the technician suspect?

    1. AMycoplasma, which is detected by PCR or DNA staining
    2. BBacteria, since the medium would look cloudy
    3. CYeast, since the medium would turn acidic and cloudy
    4. DPhage, since mammalian cells are infected by phage
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Mycoplasma, which is detected by PCR or DNA staining

    Mycoplasma is small, lacks a cell wall and does not cloud medium, so routine testing is needed. Bacteria and yeast usually cause visible changes, and phages infect bacteria, not mammalian cells.

    Reference: Freshney, Culture of Animal Cells, 7th ed., 2016

  8. Question 8Biotechnologymedium

    A laboratory wants to confirm that a human cell line is the one named on its label. Which method is recommended?

    1. AShort tandem repeat profiling compared with a reference profile
    2. BCounting the number of cells per millilitre at each of several passages
    3. CMeasuring the colour of the culture medium after twenty-four hours
    4. DChecking the growth rate over a single passage in the same medium
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Short tandem repeat profiling compared with a reference profile

    STR profiling gives a unique DNA fingerprint that can be matched to reference lines. Cell counts, medium colour and growth rate do not identify a line.

    Reference: ANSI/ATCC ASN-0002-2022, Authentication of human cell lines by STR profiling

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  1. Question 9Biotechnologymedium

    Streptococcus pyogenes Cas9 is used for editing with a guide RNA. What does the enzyme require next to the target site?

    1. AA protospacer adjacent motif, NGG
    2. BA TATA box upstream of the target
    3. CA poly-A signal downstream of the target
    4. DA restriction site at the cut position
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. A protospacer adjacent motif, NGG

    SpCas9 cuts only where an NGG PAM follows the target sequence. TATA boxes, poly-A signals and restriction sites are unrelated.

    Reference: Jinek et al., Science 2012;337:816-821

  2. Question 10Genomicsmedium

    A patient's coding DNA has a two-base deletion. What is the most likely effect on the protein?

    1. AA silent change that leaves the protein sequence unaltered
    2. BA single amino acid swap at the position where the deletion occurred in the gene
    3. CAn in-frame loss of two amino acids with the rest of the protein unchanged
    4. DA frameshift altering downstream amino acids, often with a premature stop
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. A frameshift altering downstream amino acids, often with a premature stop

    Deleting a number of bases not divisible by three shifts the reading frame. A silent change or a single missense swap involves substitution, and an in-frame loss needs a multiple of three.

    Reference: Clark, Pazdernik and McGehee, Molecular Biology, 3rd ed., 2019

  3. Question 11Genomicsmedium

    A laboratory plans whole genome sequencing of a human germline sample. Which average coverage is typical?

    1. AAbout 0.1x
    2. BAbout 1000x
    3. CAbout 30x
    4. DAbout 5x
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. About 30x

    Human germline whole genomes are usually sequenced at about 30x depth to call heterozygous variants confidently. 0.1x and 5x are low-pass and 1000x is for targeted panels.

    Reference: Goodwin et al., Nature Reviews Genetics 2016;17:333-351

  4. Question 12Molecular Techniqueseasy

    DNA fragments are run on an agarose gel. Toward which electrode do they migrate, and why?

    1. AToward the negative electrode, because the bases are positively charged
    2. BToward the positive electrode, because the phosphate backbone is negatively charged
    3. CToward the positive electrode, because DNA is hydrophobic
    4. DThey do not move without a protein stain present
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Toward the positive electrode, because the phosphate backbone is negatively charged

    DNA carries a negative charge from its phosphate groups, so it moves toward the anode. The bases are not responsible for charge, hydrophobicity does not drive migration, and no protein stain is needed.

    Reference: Green and Sambrook, Molecular Cloning: A Laboratory Manual, 4th ed., 2012

  5. Question 13Genomicsmedium

    A laboratory report lists a variant as a variant of uncertain significance. How should it be treated?

    1. AIt should not be used alone for clinical decisions and should be reviewed later
    2. BIt should be reported as pathogenic to be safe, so that the patient is followed closely
    3. CIt should be removed from the report because it is not informative
    4. DIt should be treated as benign unless the clinician asks the laboratory otherwise
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. It should not be used alone for clinical decisions and should be reviewed later

    Under ACMG/AMP criteria, evidence is insufficient to call the variant pathogenic or benign, so it is reported as uncertain and reviewed later. Upgrading, deleting or downgrading it without evidence is wrong.

    Reference: Richards et al., ACMG/AMP variant interpretation, Genetics in Medicine 2015;17:405-424

  6. Question 14Professional Practice/ Ethicseasy

    A blood sample arrives for genetic testing with a tube label that does not match the requisition form. What is the correct action?

    1. ADo not process it, document the discrepancy and request a new sample
    2. BCorrect the label from memory and process it so that the result is not delayed
    3. CProcess it now and fix the requisition form after the result is released
    4. DChoose whichever of the two names seems the most likely and then proceed
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Do not process it, document the discrepancy and request a new sample

    Mismatched identifiers risk sample swaps, so the sample must be rejected and recollected. Guessing or correcting it later compromises results.

    Reference: CLSI GP41, Collection of Diagnostic Venous Blood Specimens, 7th ed., 2017

  7. Question 15Molecular Techniquesmedium

    The no-template control in a PCR run shows a clear amplification band. What should the technician do?

    1. AReport the run, since the sample lanes themselves look normal on the gel
    2. BDiscard the run, replace the reagents and decontaminate the workspace
    3. CRaise the annealing temperature and read the same gel again on the next day
    4. DAdd more primers to the reaction so that they outcompete the contaminating template
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Discard the run, replace the reagents and decontaminate the workspace

    Amplification in a no-template control means contamination by template or amplicon, so the run is invalid and sources must be removed. Ignoring it, changing temperature or adding primers does not remove contamination.

    Reference: Bustin et al., The MIQE guidelines, Clinical Chemistry 2009;55:611-622

What the Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam covers

The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.

Basic Laboratory Skills

~14%

Solution preparation, molarity and dilutions · Pipetting technique and volume ranges · Centrifugation

Molecular Techniques

~17%

PCR design, primers and annealing temperature · Real-time PCR · Gel electrophoresis of DNA

Biotechnology

~29%

Restriction enzymes and ligases · Transformation and competent cells · Vectors, selection and blue-white screening

Genomics

~17%

Next-generation sequencing platforms and chemistry · Sequencing depth and coverage · Exome versus genome sequencing

Bioinformatics

~17%

FASTA and FASTQ formats · Phred base quality scores · BLAST and E-values

Professional Practice/ Ethics

~6%

Sample identification and rejection criteria · Confidentiality of genomic and health data · Research ethics, consent and secondary use of samples

How to answer these questions

1

Questions test applied practice: what you would do with this patient, this result or this image - not textbook definitions.

2

Safety items (radiation, infection control, patient identification, equipment checks) are high-yield and quick to revise.

3

Under time pressure, flag and move on: every question carries the same mark.

4

Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.

The full Genomic & Biotechnology Technician bank: from 3 papers, ~150 questions each

AED 269 one-time

Every question with a rationale and a reference. PDF, lifetime access.

Request this question bank

Tell us your authority and we send the bank for that exam, usually the same day.

What's inside the bank →

Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam questions: FAQs

How many questions are in the Genomic & Biotechnology Technician Prometric exam?
It depends on the regulator: SCFHS 150 MCQs in 180 minutes. The full table above lists every GCC regulator.
What is the pass mark for the Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam?
SCFHS: 50%. Pass marks are set exam by exam, so use your own regulator's figure.
Are these real exam questions?
No. Regulators do not release their papers, and anything sold as a leaked paper is unofficial and risky to rely on. These are original questions written to the official exam blueprint, at the level and in the style of the real exam, each with a worked explanation.
Is the Genomic & Biotechnology Technician exam the same in every GCC country?
The clinical content is broadly similar because the exams test the same safe practice, but the format, length, pass mark, attempts and fees differ by regulator. Prepare on the content once, then check your regulator's exact rules before you book.
How should I use these questions?
Answer each one before opening the explanation, and note why each wrong option is wrong. Then take the free 25-question timed mock to see your score against the pass mark, and move to full-length papers when you score comfortably above it.

Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.

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