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Respiratory Therapist Prometric exam questions

Exam-length papers built to the published Respiratory Therapist blueprint.

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For DHA · DOH · MOHAP · SHA · SCFHS · NHRADHA RES5882Pass mark DHA 60%From 3 papers · ~170 Qs each
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What is riding on this exam

~AED 880
DHA exam fee, per attempt
Paid again on every re-sit. Other regulators' fees are in the table below.
3
UAE attempts - in total
Shared across DHA, DOH, MOHAP and SHA, not three each. Saudi, Qatar, Oman and Kuwait rules are in the FAQ.
60%
DHA pass mark
Pass or fail only. Other authorities set their own pass marks.

One failed attempt costs you the fee again, plus months of delay on your licence, your visa and your start date. This bank costs about a third of one exam fee.

Every regulator: format, pass marks and fees for all GCC licensing exams, each from the regulator's own documents.

The Respiratory Therapist exam at a glance

DHA (UAE) publishes a Respiratory Therapist exam of 150 MCQs in 3 hours with a 60% pass mark; DOH (UAE) publishes a Respiratory Therapist exam of 50-100 MCQs in 1-2 hours, scored pass or fail; SCFHS (Saudi Arabia) publishes a Respiratory Therapist exam of 200 MCQs in 240 minutes with a 542 on a 200-800 scale pass mark. MOHAP, SHA, NHRA do not publish Respiratory Therapist-specific figures; their regulator-wide format and pass-mark rules are in the full table. QCHP, OMSB, Kuwait MOH publish no exam for this title.

DHA · UAE
Respiratory Therapist (RES5882)
150 MCQs in 3 hours · pass mark 60% · USD 240 (about AED 880) · checked September 2026
DOH · UAE
Respiratory Therapist CBT
50-100 MCQs in 1-2 hours · pass mark Pass / fail only · AED 500 · checked October 2026
SCFHS · Saudi Arabia
Saudi Respiratory Care Licensure Examination (SRCLE)
200 MCQs in 240 minutes · pass mark 542 on a 200-800 scale · checked October 2026

From each regulator's own exam documents; the DHA row is from the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. Every other regulator is in the full GCC table.

Try two questions from this bank

Original questions from the bank - pick an answer to see the rationale and reference.

Q1Respiratory Pharmacology & Medication Administration

A patient with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema receives intravenous furosemide. Which set of findings would best indicate a favourable respiratory response together with an expected adverse effect to monitor?

Choose an answer to see the rationale.

Q2Airway Clearance, Lung Expansion & Pulmonary Rehabilitation

After three days of postural drainage and percussion for right lower lobe atelectasis, which combination of findings best indicates that the therapy has been effective?

Choose an answer to see the rationale.

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What's inside

  • ✓3 to 6 full-length papers (~170 Q each)
  • ✓No question repeated between papers
  • ✓Four options, one unambiguous best answer
  • ✓A full rationale on every question
  • ✓A real guideline or textbook reference
  • ✓Every sub-topic in the published blueprint
  • ✓Researched by Neelim's exam research team
  • ✓Prepared for your authority's exam, not a generic set

The Respiratory Therapist exam in every GCC country

Respiratory Therapist licensing exam in every GCC country
RegulatorExamFormatPass markFee per attempt
Respiratory Therapist (RES5882)
150 MCQs in 3 hours60%USD 240 (about AED 880)
DOH
Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra
Practise →
Respiratory Therapist CBT
50-100 MCQs in 1-2 hoursPass / fail onlyAED 500
SCFHS
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
Practise →
Saudi Respiratory Care Licensure Examination (SRCLE)
200 MCQs in 240 minutes542 on a 200-800 scaleNot published
MOHAP
Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah
Practise →
MOHAP licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Computer-basedNot publishedNot published
SHA
Emirate of Sharjah
Practise →
SHA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Set at assessmentNot publishedNot published
QCHP
State of Qatar
Practise →
No exam published for this title
No DHP Qatar exam blueprint published for this title; check with DHP
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
NHRA
Kingdom of Bahrain
Practise →
NHRA licensing exam
Regulator-wide format
Prometric CBTNot publishedNot published
OMSB
Sultanate of Oman
Practise →
No exam published for this title
No OMSB exam published for this title; check with OMSB
Not publishedNot publishedNot published
Kuwait MOH
State of Kuwait
Practise →
No exam published for this title
Kuwait MOH publishes no exam for this title; check with the MOH
Not publishedNot publishedNot published

Highlighted rows publish figures for this exact Respiratory Therapist exam; the others show the regulator's general rules.

From each regulator's own exam pages; anything a regulator does not publish says so. Assessment mode also depends on your licence title, so confirm your route on your eligibility notice.

Try 15 free Respiratory Therapist questions with answersDifferent from the samples on this page - each with a full explanationStart →

What the Respiratory Therapist exam covers

The published blueprint for this exam breaks into 13 domains and 254 testable sub-topics. Our bank covers every one of them - here is the full map, so you can see exactly what you are expected to know.

Cardiopulmonary Anatomy, Physiology & Pathophysiology~7% (est.)19 topics
  • Upper and lower airway anatomy: nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tree generations, alveolar-capillary membrane
  • Lung lobes, segments, fissures, pleura and surface landmarks used for auscultation and postural drainage
  • Thoracic cage, diaphragm, accessory muscles of inspiration and expiration, and their innervation (phrenic C3-C5)
  • Mechanics of ventilation: transpulmonary pressure, elastic recoil, surface tension, surfactant, compliance and airway resistance
  • Lung volumes and capacities: TV, IRV, ERV, RV, VC, FRC, TLC, IC and their changes in obstructive vs restrictive disease
  • Time constants, dynamic vs static compliance, work of breathing and the pressure-volume curve
  • +13 more in the bank
Patient Assessment & Clinical Data Evaluation~10% (est.)20 topics
  • Review of the patient record: history of present illness, physician orders, progress notes, medication reconciliation
  • DNR status, advance directives and goals-of-care documentation and their effect on the respiratory care plan
  • Interviewing to assess dyspnea, sputum production, exercise tolerance, orthopnea, level of pain and smoking pack-years
  • Assessing level of consciousness, orientation, emotional state, ability to cooperate and Glasgow Coma Scale
  • Occupational and environmental exposure history, activities of daily living and home support
  • Assessing learning needs: literacy, preferred learning style, language, and social/cultural factors
  • +14 more in the bank
Arterial Blood Gases, Acid-Base Balance & Oxygenation Assessment~8% (est.)19 topics
  • Arterial puncture technique, site selection, modified Allen test, contraindications and complications
  • Arterial line insertion assistance, sampling, transducer leveling/zeroing, waveform damping and troubleshooting
  • Capillary and umbilical/venous blood gas sampling: indications, limitations and interpretation caveats
  • Pre-analytic errors: air bubbles, heparin dilution, delayed analysis, venous admixture and their effect on results
  • Systematic ABG interpretation: pH, PaCO2, HCO3-, base excess, PaO2, SaO2
  • Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis: causes, acute vs chronic, expected compensation rules
  • +13 more in the bank
Pulmonary Function Testing, Diagnostic Procedures & Chest Imaging~7% (est.)20 topics
  • Spirometry technique, ATS/ERS acceptability and repeatability criteria, and coaching for maximal effort
  • FVC, FEV1, FEV1/FVC, FEF25-75%, PEF: interpretation of obstructive vs restrictive vs mixed patterns
  • Severity grading of obstruction and use of predicted values, lower limit of normal and z-scores
  • Bronchodilator responsiveness testing: protocol, withhold times and criteria for a significant response
  • Bronchoprovocation testing: methacholine, exercise and mannitol challenge; PC20/PD20 interpretation and safety
  • Flow-volume loop pattern recognition: fixed and variable intra/extrathoracic upper airway obstruction
  • +14 more in the bank
Oxygen Therapy, Medical Gas Delivery, Humidity & Aerosol Therapy~7% (est.)19 topics
  • Indications, hazards and goals of oxygen therapy; target saturation ranges in acute illness and in COPD
  • Low-flow devices: nasal cannula, simple mask, partial rebreathing and non-rebreathing masks - FIO2 ranges and limitations
  • High-flow and fixed-performance devices: air-entrainment (Venturi) mask, air-entrainment nebulizer, total flow calculations
  • Heated high-flow nasal cannula: mechanism, flow/FIO2 settings, PEEP effect, humidification and weaning
  • Oxygen toxicity, absorption atelectasis, retinopathy of prematurity and CO2 retention with uncontrolled oxygen
  • Cylinder physics: contents, factors, duration-of-flow calculations, safety systems (PISS, DISS, ASSS), color coding
  • +13 more in the bank
Airway Management & Artificial Airways~7% (est.)19 topics
  • Head positioning, jaw thrust, chin lift and sniffing position for airway patency
  • Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways: sizing, insertion technique, indications and contraindications
  • Supraglottic airways: laryngeal mask airway, esophageal-tracheal tubes - sizing, placement and limitations
  • Endotracheal intubation: equipment preparation, tube sizing, blade selection, rapid-sequence intubation medications, therapist role
  • Difficult airway recognition and the difficult airway algorithm, bougie, video laryngoscopy, tube exchangers
  • Confirmation of tube placement: waveform capnography, auscultation, chest rise, radiograph, tube depth markings
  • +13 more in the bank
Mechanical Ventilation: Initiation, Management & Liberation~13% (est.)20 topics
  • Indications for mechanical ventilation and criteria for acute ventilatory failure and impending failure
  • Physiologic effects of positive pressure ventilation on cardiac output, ICP, renal and hepatic perfusion
  • Ventilator classification: control variable, trigger, limit, cycle; volume vs pressure targeting; breath types
  • Modes: assist/control (VC and PC), SIMV, pressure support, CPAP, PRVC/adaptive modes, APRV, high-frequency oscillatory ventilation
  • Initial settings: tidal volume by predicted body weight, rate, FIO2, PEEP, I:E ratio, flow pattern, trigger sensitivity
  • PEEP: physiologic effects, optimal PEEP determination, auto-PEEP/intrinsic PEEP detection and management
  • +14 more in the bank
Airway Clearance, Lung Expansion & Pulmonary Rehabilitation~6% (est.)19 topics
  • Indications, contraindications and hazards of bronchial hygiene therapy; selecting the appropriate technique
  • Postural drainage positions by lung segment, percussion and vibration technique and modifications
  • Directed cough, huff cough, autogenic drainage and the active cycle of breathing technique
  • Manually assisted cough and abdominal thrust in neuromuscular disease
  • Positive expiratory pressure (PEP) and oscillatory PEP devices (flutter, Acapella) - setup and coaching
  • High-frequency chest wall oscillation vests and intrapulmonary percussive ventilation
  • +13 more in the bank
Respiratory Pharmacology & Medication Administration~7% (est.)20 topics
  • Principles of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics applied to inhaled versus systemic routes
  • Short-acting beta-2 agonists (salbutamol/albuterol, levalbuterol): dosing, onset, duration, adverse effects, tachyphylaxis
  • Long-acting beta agonists (salmeterol, formoterol, indacaterol) and the boxed warning on LABA monotherapy in asthma
  • Anticholinergics: ipratropium (SAMA) and tiotropium/glycopyrronium/umeclidinium (LAMA), adverse effects and glaucoma precautions
  • Combination bronchodilators and triple therapy (ICS/LABA/LAMA); role in GOLD and GINA step-up therapy
  • Inhaled corticosteroids: agents, dosing, local adverse effects (candidiasis, dysphonia), spacer and rinsing counseling
  • +14 more in the bank
Neonatal & Pediatric Respiratory Care~6% (est.)19 topics
  • Fetal lung development stages, surfactant production, L/S ratio and fetal-to-neonatal circulatory transition
  • Perinatal and maternal history assessment: gestational age, APGAR score, Ballard/Dubowitz, maternal risk factors
  • Neonatal Resuscitation Program algorithm: initial steps, positive pressure ventilation, compressions, medications, targeted SpO2
  • Delivery-room management: thermoregulation, delayed cord clamping, meconium-stained amniotic fluid
  • Respiratory distress syndrome: pathophysiology, Silverman score, radiographic findings, surfactant replacement
  • Transient tachypnea of the newborn, meconium aspiration syndrome and neonatal pneumonia
  • +13 more in the bank
Critical Care, Emergency Response, Resuscitation & Transport~6% (est.)20 topics
  • Basic life support: high-quality chest compressions, compression-ventilation ratio, AED use, chain of survival
  • Advanced cardiovascular life support algorithms: cardiac arrest, bradycardia, tachycardia, post-cardiac-arrest care
  • Airway and ventilation during CPR: bag-mask technique, advanced airway placement, capnography for ROSC and CPR quality
  • Basic ECG interpretation: sinus rhythms, atrial fibrillation/flutter, SVT, VT, VF, asystole, PEA, heart blocks
  • 12-lead ECG acquisition, lead placement, artifact recognition and identification of ischemia/infarct patterns
  • Hemodynamic monitoring: arterial line, CVP, pulmonary artery catheter, cardiac output, SVR/PVR and waveform interpretation
  • +14 more in the bank
Equipment Assembly, Troubleshooting & Quality Control~6% (est.)20 topics
  • Systematic troubleshooting approach: verify the patient first, then the device; separating patient from equipment problems
  • Assembly and function checks of oxygen delivery interfaces: cannulas, masks, heated high-flow systems
  • Gas delivery and metering devices: concentrators, liquid systems, flowmeters, regulators, cylinders, blenders, air compressors
  • Gas analyzers (oxygen analyzers: polarographic, galvanic, paramagnetic) - calibration, two-point calibration and drift
  • Humidifier and HME assembly, water trap management, circuit condensate and rainout troubleshooting
  • Nebulizer, MDI, spacer and DPI assembly, output verification and common failure modes
  • +14 more in the bank
Patient Safety, Infection Prevention, Professionalism, Ethics & Scope of Practice~10% (est.)20 topics
  • Standard precautions: hand hygiene (WHO five moments), gloves, gowns, eye protection and safe injection practices
  • Transmission-based precautions: contact, droplet and airborne isolation - room requirements and patient placement
  • Personal protective equipment selection, correct donning and doffing sequence, N95/FFP respirator fit testing and seal checks
  • Aerosol-generating procedures: risk mitigation, negative-pressure rooms, filtered exhalation and staff protection
  • Prevention of healthcare-associated infections: VAP/VAE, CLABSI, CAUTI bundles and the therapist's specific role
  • Tuberculosis control, occupational health screening, immunization requirements and post-exposure prophylaxis
  • +14 more in the bank

12 worked Respiratory Therapist practice questions

Original exam-style questions from the bank, spread across the blueprint domains. They are not real or recalled exam questions. Try each one, then open the answer for the rationale and reference. None of them appear in the free mock exam, so reading them will not spoil it.

  1. Question 1 · Mechanical Ventilation: Initiation, Management & Liberation

    A woman with ARDS (PBW 60 kg) is on volume A/C, tidal volume 480 mL, rate 24/min, PEEP 10 cmH2O. Plateau pressure is 32 cmH2O; ABG shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, PaO2 74 mmHg on FIO2 0.6. What is the most appropriate next step?

    1. AIncrease PEEP to 16 cmH2O to recruit more lung
    2. BIncrease the rate to 30/min to normalize the PaCO2
    3. CSwitch to pressure control with an inspiratory pressure of 32 cmH2O
    4. DReduce tidal volume to 360 mL (6 mL/kg PBW) and reassess plateau and driving pressure
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Reduce tidal volume to 360 mL (6 mL/kg PBW) and reassess plateau and driving pressure

    The current tidal volume is 8 mL/kg PBW, the plateau exceeds 30 cmH2O, and the driving pressure (plateau minus PEEP) is 22 cmH2O, well above the 14-15 cmH2O associated with better survival. Lowering tidal volume to 6 mL/kg directly reduces both plateau and driving pressure. Raising PEEP without lowering tidal volume would push plateau higher, the mild acidemia is acceptable under permissive hypercapnia, and simply changing modes at the same distending pressure does not reduce stress.

    Reference: ARDS Network, NEJM (2000); Amato MBP et al., Driving pressure and survival in ARDS, NEJM 372:747 (2015)

  2. Question 2 · Patient Safety, Infection Prevention, Professionalism, Ethics & Scope of Practice

    A patient develops tracheal stenosis after a prolonged intubation during which documented departmental policy required cuff pressure measurement every shift, and no measurements were recorded. For a claim of professional negligence against the therapist to succeed, which combination must be established?

    1. AA bad outcome and the patient's dissatisfaction with the care received
    2. BDuty of care owed to the patient, breach of the accepted standard of that duty, causation linking the breach to the injury, and resulting damages
    3. CIntent to cause harm plus a documented deviation from policy
    4. DA departmental policy violation alone, regardless of any resulting harm
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Duty of care owed to the patient, breach of the accepted standard of that duty, causation linking the breach to the injury, and resulting damages

    Negligence requires all four elements: a duty owed, a breach of the applicable standard of care, causation connecting that breach to the harm, and actual damages; failing any single element defeats the claim. A poor outcome without breach and causation is not negligence, and dissatisfaction is not a legal element. Intent is the hallmark of an intentional tort, not negligence, and a policy breach that causes no harm creates no damages even though it may attract internal disciplinary or quality review.

    Reference: Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care, 12th ed. (2021), legal and ethical implications chapter

  3. Question 3 · Cardiopulmonary Anatomy, Physiology & Pathophysiology

    Which clinical situation is most likely to produce an INCREASED measured DLCO?

    1. ASevere anemia with a hemoglobin of 7 g/dL
    2. BAcute alveolar hemorrhage
    3. CRecent cigarette smoking with elevated carboxyhemoglobin
    4. DAcute pulmonary embolism
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Acute alveolar hemorrhage

    Blood within the alveolar spaces provides extra hemoglobin that avidly binds the test carbon monoxide, so alveolar hemorrhage (as in Goodpasture syndrome) raises measured DLCO; polycythemia, asthma and left-to-right shunts do the same. Anemia lowers DLCO because there is less hemoglobin to bind CO, elevated COHb from smoking back-pressures the test gas and lowers the measurement, and pulmonary embolism reduces perfused capillary volume.

    Reference: ERS/ATS Standardisation of the Single-Breath Determination of Carbon Monoxide Uptake in the Lung (Eur Respir J, 2017)

  4. Question 4 · Oxygen Therapy, Medical Gas Delivery, Humidity & Aerosol Therapy

    A 55-year-old with viral pneumonia has been on heated high-flow nasal cannula at 60 L/min and FIO2 1.0 for two hours. Respiratory rate is 38 per minute, SpO2 is 87 percent, accessory muscle use is marked, and the ROX index is 3.2. What is the most appropriate action?

    1. AIncrease the flow to 70 L/min and reassess in four hours
    2. BChange to a non-rebreathing mask at 15 L/min
    3. CProceed to endotracheal intubation and invasive mechanical ventilation
    4. DAdd a nasal cannula at 15 L/min underneath the high-flow prongs
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Proceed to endotracheal intubation and invasive mechanical ventilation

    A ROX index below about 3.85 after two hours of high-flow therapy, together with persistent tachypnea, accessory muscle use and hypoxemia on FIO2 1.0, predicts high-flow failure and should prompt intubation rather than continued escalation. Waiting a further four hours risks delayed intubation, which is associated with worse outcomes. A non-rebreathing mask delivers less flow and no humidification and would worsen matters, and layering a second cannula adds no meaningful support.

    Reference: Roca et al., An Index Combining Respiratory Rate and Oxygenation to Predict Outcome of Nasal High-Flow Therapy, American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine 2019

  5. Question 5 · Respiratory Pharmacology & Medication Administration

    A patient has taken high-dose oral prednisolone continuously for 4 months for severe asthma and now wishes to stop. Why must the dose be tapered rather than stopped abruptly?

    1. AAbrupt cessation causes rebound bronchoconstriction through beta receptor upregulation
    2. BProlonged exogenous steroid suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, so abrupt withdrawal can precipitate adrenal insufficiency
    3. CTapering is required to allow renal clearance of accumulated drug metabolites
    4. DAbrupt cessation causes an immediate rise in blood glucose and ketoacidosis
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Prolonged exogenous steroid suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, so abrupt withdrawal can precipitate adrenal insufficiency

    Courses longer than about 2-3 weeks suppress endogenous cortisol production through negative feedback on the HPA axis, and abrupt withdrawal can cause adrenal crisis with hypotension, hypoglycaemia and shock; tapering allows adrenal recovery. Steroid withdrawal does not act through beta receptor upregulation or accumulated metabolites, and stopping steroids lowers rather than raises blood glucose.

    Reference: Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) Report, 2023; Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 13th ed. (2018), adrenocorticosteroids

  6. Question 6 · Neonatal & Pediatric Respiratory Care

    A post-term infant with meconium aspiration syndrome is being ventilated with PIP 30 cmH2O, PEEP 6 cmH2O and FIO2 0.90. The chest film shows hyperinflation with patchy coarse infiltrates. The infant suddenly deteriorates with a fall in SpO2 to 62%, bradycardia, decreased breath sounds on the right and a shift of the cardiac impulse to the left. Which complication is most likely?

    1. ARight mainstem intubation
    2. BTension pneumothorax on the right
    3. CAcute pulmonary hemorrhage
    4. DComplete right lower lobe atelectasis
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Tension pneumothorax on the right

    Meconium creates a ball-valve obstruction with gas trapping, and when combined with high inflating pressures it makes air leak the most common acute complication; sudden desaturation with bradycardia, unilaterally decreased breath sounds and contralateral mediastinal shift is the classic picture of a tension pneumothorax requiring immediate needle decompression. Right mainstem intubation reduces breath sounds on the left, not the right, and does not usually shift the mediastinum away from the affected side. Pulmonary hemorrhage produces bloody secretions from the airway, and lobar atelectasis pulls the mediastinum toward the affected side rather than away from it.

    Reference: Walsh BK. Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care, 5th ed., Elsevier (2019); Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care, 12th ed. (2021)

  7. Question 7 · Equipment Assembly, Troubleshooting & Quality Control

    An 80/20 helium-oxygen mixture is being delivered through a standard oxygen Thorpe tube flowmeter, which is set at an indicated 10 L/min. What is the approximate actual flow of heliox delivered?

    1. A6 L/min
    2. B10 L/min
    3. C14 L/min
    4. D18 L/min
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 18 L/min

    Because helium is far less dense than oxygen, it flows more readily through the flowmeter than the gas the device was calibrated for, and the indicated value must be multiplied by a correction factor of 1.8 for 80/20 heliox: 10 x 1.8 = 18 L/min (the factor for 70/30 heliox is 1.6). Reading the dial directly underestimates the delivered flow, and dividing rather than multiplying gives the incorrect low value. Failure to apply the factor leads to serious errors in estimating delivered flow and FIO2.

    Reference: Cairo JM, Mosby's Respiratory Care Equipment, 10th ed. (2018), heliox delivery and flowmeter correction factors

  8. Question 8 · Patient Assessment & Clinical Data Evaluation

    Over four hours in a volume-controlled ventilated patient, the peak inspiratory pressure has risen from 28 to 42 cmH2O while the plateau pressure has remained at 22 cmH2O with unchanged settings. What does this trend indicate?

    1. AIncreased airway resistance, such as secretions, bronchospasm or a partially obstructed tube
    2. BDecreased lung compliance, such as developing pulmonary edema
    3. CDevelopment of a large pneumothorax
    4. DA leak in the ventilator circuit
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Increased airway resistance, such as secretions, bronchospasm or a partially obstructed tube

    Peak pressure reflects both resistive and elastic loads whereas plateau pressure reflects elastic load alone, so a rising peak with a stable plateau widens the peak-to-plateau difference and localizes the problem to airway resistance. A falling compliance problem such as edema or pneumothorax would raise the plateau pressure as well, and a circuit leak lowers rather than raises measured pressures.

    Reference: Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care, 12th edition (Elsevier, 2021)

  9. Question 9 · Arterial Blood Gases, Acid-Base Balance & Oxygenation Assessment

    A ventilated patient at sea level on FIO2 1.0 has Hb 15 g/dL, PaO2 100 mmHg with SaO2 97%, and mixed venous PO2 40 mmHg with SvO2 70%. Assuming end-capillary blood is fully saturated at a PAO2 of about 663 mmHg, what is the approximate shunt fraction?

    1. A10%
    2. B18%
    3. C29%
    4. D41%
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 29%

    CcO2 = (1.34 x 15 x 1.00) + (0.003 x 663) = 22.1 vol%, CaO2 = (1.34 x 15 x 0.97) + (0.003 x 100) = 19.8 vol%, and CvO2 = (1.34 x 15 x 0.70) + (0.003 x 40) = 14.2 vol%. Qs/Qt = (22.1 - 19.8) / (22.1 - 14.2) = 2.3 / 7.9 = about 0.29, a large shunt (normal is under 5%) that indicates the need for recruitment and PEEP rather than further FIO2 escalation.

    Reference: Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care, 12th ed., 2021; Marino's The ICU Book, 4th ed., 2014

  10. Question 10 · Pulmonary Function Testing, Diagnostic Procedures & Chest Imaging

    A patient with chronic iron-deficiency anemia (hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL) has an uncorrected DLCO of 62% predicted. After adjustment for hemoglobin the DLCO is 79% predicted. Which statement is most accurate?

    1. AAnemia lowers the measured DLCO, and the hemoglobin-adjusted value should be used for interpretation
    2. BAnemia raises the measured DLCO, so the true diffusing capacity is even lower than 62%
    3. CHemoglobin adjustment applies only to patients with an elevated carboxyhemoglobin level
    4. DThe adjusted value should be ignored, because only the raw measured DLCO is clinically valid
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Anemia lowers the measured DLCO, and the hemoglobin-adjusted value should be used for interpretation

    Carbon monoxide uptake depends on the amount of hemoglobin available to bind it, so anemia reduces the measured DLCO independently of any lung disease and polycythemia raises it. Standards therefore require reporting a hemoglobin-adjusted DLCO, which here shows a far less severe defect than the raw value implied. Carboxyhemoglobin and altitude are separate additional corrections, and the adjusted value is the one that should guide clinical interpretation.

    Reference: Graham BL et al., ERS/ATS Standards for Single-Breath Carbon Monoxide Uptake in the Lung, Eur Respir J 2017

  11. Question 11 · Airway Management & Artificial Airways

    A patient is intubated with an 8.0 mm internal diameter endotracheal tube. Using the standard rule that the catheter should occlude no more than about half the tube's internal diameter, which suction catheter size is most appropriate?

    1. A8 Fr
    2. B10 Fr
    3. C12 Fr
    4. D18 Fr
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 12 Fr

    The common sizing rule multiplies the tube's internal diameter in millimetres by 3 and divides by 2, giving (8 x 3) / 2 = 12 Fr, which keeps catheter cross-section at roughly half the tube lumen and preserves gas flow around it. An 8 or 10 Fr catheter would function but is less efficient at removing thick secretions from a large tube. An 18 Fr catheter would occlude most of the lumen, generating excessive negative airway pressure, hypoxemia and atelectasis.

    Reference: AARC Clinical Practice Guideline: Endotracheal Suctioning of Mechanically Ventilated Patients with Artificial Airways, 2010

  12. Question 12 · Respiratory Pharmacology & Medication Administration

    A patient with severe ARDS is receiving a continuous cisatracurium infusion. Train-of-four monitoring at the ulnar nerve shows 0 of 4 twitches. What is the most appropriate action?

    1. AReduce the infusion rate, aiming for 1-2 twitches of 4, and confirm that deep sedation and analgesia are maintained
    2. BStop all sedation because paralysis alone provides comfort
    3. CDiscontinue train-of-four monitoring since paralysis is confirmed
    4. DIncrease the infusion rate to guarantee complete paralysis
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Reduce the infusion rate, aiming for 1-2 twitches of 4, and confirm that deep sedation and analgesia are maintained

    A train-of-four of 0 of 4 indicates excessive blockade, which prolongs recovery and increases the risk of ICU-acquired weakness; titration to 1-2 twitches provides adequate paralysis with less drug. Neuromuscular blockers provide no sedation, amnesia or analgesia, so deep sedation must always accompany them, and monitoring must continue to guide titration.

    Reference: Society of Critical Care Medicine Clinical Practice Guidelines for Sustained Neuromuscular Blockade in the Adult Critically Ill Patient (Murray et al., Crit Care Med, 2016)

Respiratory Therapist reference books and guidelines

Every question in this bank names the textbook or guideline its answer rests on. These are the sources our Respiratory Therapist questions cite most often - the reading list to revise from alongside the bank.

Textbooks

10
  1. 1

    Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care

    12th edition2021
  2. 2

    West's Respiratory Physiology: The Essentials

    11th edition
  3. 3

    AAP/AHA Neonatal Resuscitation Program (NRP) Textbook

    8th edition2021
  4. 4

    Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

    13th edition2018
  5. 5

    Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care

    5th edition
  6. 6

    Cairo, Mosby's Respiratory Care Equipment

    10th edition2018
  7. 7

    Marino's The ICU Book

    4th edition2014
  8. 8

    Goldfrank's Toxicologic Emergencies

    11th edition2019
  9. 9

    reaffirmed) and Cochrane review of chest physiotherapy for preterm infants

    2016
  10. 10

    Pilbeam's Mechanical Ventilation

    7th edition

Guidelines and standards

10
  1. 1

    AARC Clinical Practice Guideline: Postural Drainage Therapy (Respiratory Care)

    1991
  2. 2

    ATS/ESICM/SCCM ARDS Guideline

    2017
  3. 3

    ASA Practice Guidelines for Management of the Difficult Airway

    2022
  4. 4

    Difficult Airway Society Guidelines for Management of Unanticipated Difficult Intubation in Adults

    2015
  5. 5

    Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) Report

    2023
  6. 6

    ESC/ERS Guidelines for the Diagnosis and Treatment of Pulmonary Hypertension (Eur Heart J)

    2022
  7. 7

    CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions / CDC Safe Injection Practices, One & Only Campaign (CDC)

    2007
  8. 8

    AARC Clinical Practice Guideline: In-Hospital Transport of the Mechanically Ventilated Patient

    2002
  9. 9

    Society of Critical Care Medicine Guidelines for Intra- and Interhospital Transport of Critically Ill Patients

    2004
  10. 10

    AHA Guidelines for CPR and ECC, Part 4: Pediatric Basic and Advanced Life Support

    2020

Where your regulator publishes a reading list, use the editions it names. Exam questions are not taken from any one book.

Last reviewed September 2026

About these questions: every question is original, researched by Neelim's exam research team, written to the published blueprint, with a rationale and a reference. No recalled or leaked exam content is used. How we write our questions.

Frequently asked questions

Are these real Respiratory Therapist exam questions?
No. Every item is original, researched by Neelim's exam research team against the exam blueprint published by the health authorities. Real, recalled or leaked exam content breaches the testing bodies' rules and can lead to a permanent exam ban - we do not sell it, and neither should anyone else.
How many questions are in the Respiratory Therapist bank?
Every bank starts at 3 full-length papers of roughly 170 questions each (the DHA exam itself is 150 questions), and you can add papers up to 6, including a bonus paper of our hardest questions. The papers do not overlap, so every question is new, and together they cover every sub-topic in the published blueprint.
What is the pass mark for the DHA Respiratory Therapist exam?
60%. DHA publishes the pass score for each exam, and 60% is the figure for Respiratory Therapist (RES5882) in the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. The result is posted to your Sheryan account as Pass or Fail only - your score is not shared. Elsewhere in the GCC: DOH Pass / fail only, SCFHS 542 on a 200-800 scale.
How many questions are in the DHA Respiratory Therapist exam, and how long is it?
150 multiple-choice questions in 3 hours, and the time includes registration and the introduction. It is a computer-based test delivered by Prometric at test centres in the UAE and abroad.
How much does the DHA Respiratory Therapist exam cost?
USD 240 (about AED 880) per attempt, paid again for every re-sit. DHA also charges a flat AED 200 credentialing fee through Sheryan.
How many attempts do I get?
In the UAE, three in total across DHA, DOH, MOHAP and SHA, not three each, under clause 1.5.4 of the Unified PQR (April 2025). Clause 1.5.5 allows one further attempt with a different authority, except on the Consultant route. Elsewhere in the GCC: SCFHS up to 4 a year, QCHP 5 per scope, OMSB no set maximum, Kuwait MOH 3, 6 weeks apart.
Does this cover DHA, DOH, MOHAP, SCFHS and the other GCC regulators?
Yes, and it is not a generic set. Tell us which regulator you are sitting and we send the bank prepared for that authority's exam: its blueprint, its exam length and pass mark, and its local regulations. The core clinical knowledge is shared across the GCC; what changes by regulator is the test vendor (Prometric for DHA, SCFHS, QCHP, NHRA, Kuwait MOH; Pearson VUE for DOH, OMSB), the exam length, the pass mark, the local-regulation questions and, at some regulators such as DOH, an added oral or OSCE component. The table on this page shows each regulator's published format, pass mark and fee, and says where a figure is not published.
How do I receive it?
As PDF files. Card checkout is being set up, so for now you request it from this page and we send it to you directly, usually the same day.

Still unsure whether you even need this exam?

Your route depends on your profession, your licence title and the authority. We have guided over 1,000 professionals through GCC licensing - tell us your situation and we will confirm exactly what you need to sit.