Physiotherapist Prometric exam questions with answers

1. Question 1Anatomy, Physiology & Basic Scienceseasy

   A patient sustained a fracture of the fibular neck and now has foot drop. Which nerve is most likely injured, and which movements are weak?

   1. ATibial nerve; ankle plantarflexion and inversion
   2. BCommon peroneal nerve; ankle dorsiflexion and eversion
   3. CFemoral nerve; knee extension and hip flexion
   4. DSciatic nerve; knee flexion and hip extension
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: B. Common peroneal nerve; ankle dorsiflexion and eversion

   The common peroneal nerve winds around the fibular neck and is vulnerable to fracture or compression there; injury weakens dorsiflexion (deep branch) and eversion (superficial branch), producing foot drop. Tibial nerve injury affects plantarflexion and inversion and does not cause foot drop.

2. Question 2Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Ergonomicshard

   During single-leg stance on the right leg, a patient's left side of the pelvis drops. Which muscle is most likely weak?

   1. ALeft gluteus medius
   2. BRight gluteus maximus
   3. CLeft adductor magnus
   4. DRight gluteus medius
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: D. Right gluteus medius

   A positive Trendelenburg sign reflects weakness of the hip abductors of the stance limb; when standing on the right, the right gluteus medius should hold the pelvis level, so the unsupported left side drops. Choosing the left gluteus medius is the common error, because the pelvis drops on the side opposite the weak muscle.

3. Question 3Patient Assessment, Clinical Decision Making & Differential Diagnosiseasy

   A 45-year-old man with low back pain reports new numbness around the anus and perineum and difficulty starting urination. What is the most appropriate action?

   1. ARefer urgently for same-day medical assessment and MRI
   2. BBegin lumbar extension exercises and review in one week
   3. CApply lumbar traction to relieve nerve root compression
   4. DAdvise bed rest and over-the-counter analgesia
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: A. Refer urgently for same-day medical assessment and MRI

   Saddle anaesthesia and new bladder dysfunction are red flags for cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency requiring same-day assessment and urgent MRI to prevent permanent loss of bladder, bowel and sexual function. Starting exercise or traction and reviewing later delays decompression.

4. Question 4Patient Assessment, Clinical Decision Making & Differential Diagnosismedium

   An athlete has an acute knee effusion after a non-contact pivoting injury. Which clinical test is most sensitive for an anterior cruciate ligament tear?

   1. APosterior drawer test
   2. BMcMurray test
   3. CLachman test
   4. DValgus stress test at 30 degrees
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: C. Lachman test

   The Lachman test, performed at 20-30 degrees of knee flexion, is the most sensitive clinical test for ACL rupture and is less affected by hamstring guarding than the anterior drawer test. McMurray tests for meniscal tears, which may coexist, while the posterior drawer and valgus stress tests assess the PCL and MCL.

5. Question 5Musculoskeletal Physiotherapy & Rehabilitationmedium

   On day 2 after a total hip replacement via a posterior approach, which movement should the patient be taught to avoid?

   1. AHip extension combined with abduction and external rotation
   2. BHip abduction in supine with a pillow between the knees
   3. CHip flexion past 90 degrees with adduction and internal rotation
   4. DAnkle pumping and isometric gluteal contractions in bed
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: C. Hip flexion past 90 degrees with adduction and internal rotation

   After a posterior approach, the posterior capsule and short external rotators are weakened, so combined flexion beyond 90 degrees, adduction past midline and internal rotation risk posterior dislocation. Extension with external rotation is the movement restricted after an anterior approach, not a posterior one.

6. Question 6Neurological Physiotherapy & Neurorehabilitationmedium

   A patient admitted with Guillain-Barre syndrome has rapidly ascending weakness. Which measure is most important to monitor regularly during the acute phase?

   1. AForced vital capacity
   2. BMuscle tone with the Modified Ashworth Scale
   3. CSix-minute walk distance
   4. DGrip strength with a dynamometer
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: A. Forced vital capacity

   Ascending weakness can involve the respiratory muscles, and serial forced vital capacity detects impending respiratory failure; a falling FVC (for example below about 20 mL/kg) prompts consideration of ventilatory support. Grip strength tracks limb weakness but does not warn of respiratory compromise, and tone is reduced rather than increased in GBS.

7. Question 7Neurological Physiotherapy & Neurorehabilitationhard

   After a right hemisphere stroke, a patient actively pushes with the non-paretic arm and leg toward the left (paretic) side in sitting and standing, and resists correction to midline. Which treatment approach is most appropriate?

   1. APush the patient firmly back to midline whenever the leaning occurs
   2. BStrengthen the non-paretic leg so it can push harder to stay upright
   3. CAvoid all upright activity until the pushing behaviour resolves spontaneously
   4. DUse visual cues of vertical so the patient realigns actively
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: D. Use visual cues of vertical so the patient realigns actively

   Pusher syndrome is linked to a disturbed perception of postural vertical, while visual vertical is usually preserved, so treatment uses visual cues and active reaching to the non-paretic side to help the patient correct alignment themselves. Passively pushing the patient back provokes stronger resistance and pushing.

8. Question 8Cardiopulmonary / Cardiorespiratory Physiotherapyeasy

   A physiotherapist teaches a patient with bronchiectasis the active cycle of breathing technique. Which components make up the cycle?

   1. APursed-lip breathing, incentive spirometry and postural drainage
   2. BBreathing control, thoracic expansion and forced expiration technique
   3. CDiaphragmatic breathing, percussion and vigorous repeated coughing
   4. DInspiratory muscle training, huffing and continuous positive pressure
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: B. Breathing control, thoracic expansion and forced expiration technique

   The active cycle of breathing technique combines breathing control, thoracic expansion exercises (deep breaths with optional holds) and the forced expiration technique (huffing), repeated as a flexible cycle. Postural drainage and percussion can be added as adjuncts but are not core components of the cycle.

9. Question 9Cardiopulmonary / Cardiorespiratory Physiotherapyhard

   A patient with severe COPD and known hypercapnic respiratory failure is on controlled oxygen during a chest physiotherapy session. What target oxygen saturation range is recommended?

   1. A88-92%
   2. B94-98%
   3. C92-96%
   4. D85-88%
   Show answer and explanation▾

   Answer: A. 88-92%

   BTS guidance recommends a target of 88-92% in patients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, such as severe COPD, because excess oxygen can worsen hypercapnia and acidosis. The 94-98% range is the target for most acutely ill patients without this risk, and applying it here can be harmful.

10. Question 10Electrotherapy, Physical Agents & Hydrotherapymedium

    A patient with an acute ankle sprain is considered for ice therapy. Which history is a contraindication to cryotherapy?

    1. AHypertension controlled with medication
    2. BType 2 diabetes with normal foot sensation
    3. CCold urticaria
    4. DPrevious ankle sprain on the same side
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: C. Cold urticaria

    Cold urticaria is a hypersensitivity to cold that can cause widespread wheals and even systemic reactions, so cryotherapy is contraindicated; Raynaud's phenomenon and cryoglobulinaemia are other contraindications. Controlled hypertension and diabetes with intact sensation are precautions at most, requiring monitoring rather than avoidance.

11. Question 11Therapeutic Exercise & Exercise Prescriptionmedium

    A healthy sedentary 40-year-old is starting resistance training. Which prescription best fits ACSM recommendations for a novice aiming to improve strength?

    1. A1-3 repetitions at about 90-95% of 1RM, 5-6 days per week for each major muscle group
    2. B8-12 repetitions at about 60-70% of 1RM, 2-3 days per week for each major muscle group
    3. C25-30 repetitions at about 20% of 1RM, once per week for each major muscle group
    4. D8-12 repetitions at about 85-90% of 1RM, daily for each major muscle group
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: B. 8-12 repetitions at about 60-70% of 1RM, 2-3 days per week for each major muscle group

    ACSM recommends novices train each major muscle group 2-3 non-consecutive days per week with loads of about 60-70% of 1RM for 8-12 repetitions, progressing gradually. Very heavy loads of 90% or more with high frequency suit advanced lifters and raise injury risk in beginners, while very light loads once weekly give little strength stimulus.

12. Question 12Physical Therapy in Special Populationsmedium

    A 68-year-old woman with osteoporosis and a previous vertebral compression fracture is starting an exercise programme. Which exercise should be avoided?

    1. AProgressive resistance training for the hip extensors
    2. BStatic and dynamic balance training
    3. CThoracic extensor strengthening in prone
    4. DWeighted sit-ups and loaded spinal flexion
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: D. Weighted sit-ups and loaded spinal flexion

    Loaded or repeated spinal flexion, especially with rotation, increases compressive force on the anterior vertebral bodies and the risk of further vertebral fracture. Progressive resistance, balance training and spinal extensor strengthening are recommended for osteoporosis because they build bone and muscle strength and reduce falls.

13. Question 13Sports Physiotherapymedium

    During a football match, a player is dazed and unsteady after a head-to-head collision but says he feels fine and wants to continue. What should the physiotherapist do?

    1. AAllow him to return if he passes a quick memory check on the sideline
    2. BAllow him to return after 15 minutes if his symptoms have settled
    3. CAllow him to return wearing protective headgear
    4. DRemove him from play and not allow return on the same day
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: D. Remove him from play and not allow return on the same day

    Any player with suspected concussion should be removed from play and must not return on the same day, according to international consensus guidance, followed by medical assessment and a graduated return-to-sport strategy. A brief normal sideline check does not rule out concussion, because symptoms can evolve over hours.

14. Question 14Integumentary, Wound Care & Tissue Managementhard

    A patient with a chronic lower-leg ulcer has an ankle-brachial pressure index of 0.45. What is the most appropriate management decision?

    1. AAvoid compression and refer urgently for vascular review
    2. BApply full high-compression multilayer bandaging
    3. CApply reduced compression and review in 4 weeks
    4. DStart graduated compression stockings for venous disease
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: A. Avoid compression and refer urgently for vascular review

    An ABPI below 0.5 indicates severe arterial insufficiency; compression is contraindicated because it can cause ischaemia and necrosis, and urgent vascular referral is required. Reduced compression may be considered under specialist supervision for mixed disease with an ABPI around 0.5-0.8, but not at this level.

15. Question 15Professional Practice, Ethics, Safety & Evidence-Based Practiceeasy

    A physiotherapist searches for evidence on exercise for knee osteoarthritis. Which source normally provides the highest level of evidence for treatment effectiveness?

    1. AA single large randomised controlled trial
    2. BA systematic review and meta-analysis of RCTs
    3. CA prospective cohort study with long follow-up
    4. DExpert opinion from a national professional body
    Show answer and explanation▾

    Answer: B. A systematic review and meta-analysis of RCTs

    Systematic reviews and meta-analyses of well-conducted RCTs sit at the top of the evidence hierarchy for treatment questions because they pool results and reduce the influence of chance and single-study bias. A single RCT is strong evidence but ranks below a systematic synthesis, and expert opinion is the lowest level.

Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.