General Surgery Prometric exam questions with answers
15 original practice questions written to the General Surgery exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the General Surgery exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP and every other GCC regulator, from their own published rules.
- 15
- Free questions
- 65%
- DHA pass mark
- 150
- Questions on the DHA exam
- 25
- Questions in the free mock
Quick answer
The General Surgery exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours at DHA (pass mark 65%) and 150 MCQs in 3 hours at QCHP (pass mark 65%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 25-question timed mock.
The General Surgery exam in every GCC country
DHA, QCHP publish an exact General Surgery exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.
| Regulator | Exam | Format | Pass mark | Fee per attempt | Practise |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| DHA Dubai | Specialist General Surgery (GEN5341) | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | USD 280 (about AED 1,030) | DHA questions → |
| DOH Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra | DOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Written + oral/OSCE | Pass / fail only | Not published | DOH questions → |
| MOHAP Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah | MOHAP licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based | Not published | Not published | MOHAP questions → |
| SHA Emirate of Sharjah | SHA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Set at assessment | Not published | Not published | SHA questions → |
| SCFHS Kingdom of Saudi Arabia | SCFHS licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 200 MCQs, 240 min | 500-560 of 800 | Not published | SCFHS questions → |
| QCHP State of Qatar | Specialist General Surgery | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | Not published | QCHP questions → |
| NHRA Kingdom of Bahrain | NHRA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Prometric CBT | Not published | Not published | NHRA questions → |
| OMSB Sultanate of Oman | OMSB licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based OC exam | Not published | Not published | OMSB questions → |
| Kuwait MOH State of Kuwait | Kuwait MOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 150 MCQs, 170 min | 60-70% | Not published | Kuwait MOH questions → |
exact exam published for General Surgery
Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.
15 General Surgery exam questions with answers
Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.
- Question 1Fluid, Electrolyte, Acid-Base and Surgical Nutritioneasy
A 70 kg adult is nil by mouth after surgery and has no ongoing losses or electrolyte abnormalities. Which daily maintenance prescription is most appropriate?
- AAbout 3 L of 0.9% sodium chloride with no added glucose
- BAbout 1 L of water with 140 mmol of sodium and 10 mmol of potassium
- CAbout 2 L of water with about 70 mmol each of sodium and potassium and 50 to 100 g of glucose
- DAbout 4 L of water with 300 mmol of sodium and no potassium
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. About 2 L of water with about 70 mmol each of sodium and potassium and 50 to 100 g of glucose
Adult maintenance requirements are roughly 25 to 30 mL/kg/day of water, about 1 mmol/kg/day each of sodium, potassium and chloride, and 50 to 100 g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis, which for 70 kg is about 2 litres. Three litres of 0.9% saline delivers about 460 mmol of sodium and chloride, causing sodium overload and hyperchloraemic acidosis. Too little water risks dehydration and too much risks hyponatraemia and oedema.
- Question 2Shock, Haemostasis, Transfusion and Coagulationmedium
A 30-year-old man is hypotensive and bleeding 90 minutes after a stab wound to the abdomen, and the major haemorrhage protocol is activated. How should tranexamic acid be used?
- A1 g IV over 10 minutes, then 1 g infused over 8 hours
- BGive it only if the fibrinogen is below 1.5 g/L
- CWithhold it because more than 1 hour has passed since injury
- DGive 2 g IV only after surgical haemostasis is achieved
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 1 g IV over 10 minutes, then 1 g infused over 8 hours
The CRASH-2 trial showed that tranexamic acid reduces death from bleeding in trauma when given within 3 hours of injury, using a 1 g loading dose over 10 minutes followed by 1 g over 8 hours; benefit is greatest the earlier it is given. After 3 hours it appears not to help and may be harmful, but 90 minutes is well within the window. Its use does not depend on fibrinogen levels.
- Question 3Surgical Infection, Sepsis and Antimicrobial Stewardshipeasy
For an elective colectomy, when should intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis (such as cefazolin plus metronidazole) be given?
- AWithin 60 minutes before skin incision, redosing cefazolin if surgery exceeds about 4 hours
- BOnly if bowel contamination occurs during the procedure
- CThe evening before surgery and continued for 5 days
- DAt the end of the operation, once the wound is closed
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Within 60 minutes before skin incision, redosing cefazolin if surgery exceeds about 4 hours
Prophylactic antibiotics are most effective when tissue levels are adequate at the time of incision, so they should be given within 60 minutes beforehand and redosed during prolonged procedures or major blood loss (about every 4 hours for cefazolin). Doses after wound closure do not reduce surgical site infection. Extending prophylaxis for days adds resistance and Clostridioides difficile risk without benefit.
- Question 4Surgical Infection, Sepsis and Antimicrobial Stewardshiphard
A 52-year-old man underwent laparoscopic washout and repair of a perforated duodenal ulcer with adequate source control. On day 4 of intravenous antibiotics he is afebrile, his white cell count has normalised and he is eating. What is the most appropriate antibiotic plan?
- ASwitch to oral antibiotics for a further 10 days
- BContinue intravenous antibiotics to complete 14 days
- CContinue antibiotics until CRP is completely normal
- DStop antibiotics now, after about 4 days of therapy
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Stop antibiotics now, after about 4 days of therapy
The STOP-IT trial showed that, after adequate source control of complicated intra-abdominal infection, a fixed course of about 4 days of antibiotics gave outcomes similar to treating until physiological abnormalities resolved, with less antibiotic exposure. Prolonged courses add toxicity, resistance and C. difficile risk without benefit. CRP often lags behind clinical recovery and is a poor sole stopping criterion.
- Question 5Perioperative Care, Anaesthesia, Pain and Surgical Complicationsmedium
Twenty minutes after induction with sevoflurane and suxamethonium, a 24-year-old man develops masseter rigidity, a rising end-tidal CO2 despite increased ventilation, tachycardia and a temperature of 39.2 C. Volatile agents are stopped and help is called. What is the specific treatment?
- AIntravenous paracetamol and external cooling only
- BIntravenous dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg, repeated as needed
- CIntravenous propranolol to control the tachycardia
- DIntravenous rocuronium to relieve the rigidity
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Intravenous dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg, repeated as needed
These features indicate malignant hyperthermia, a hypermetabolic reaction to volatile agents and suxamethonium in susceptible patients. Dantrolene, which reduces calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, is the specific treatment, given as 2.5 mg/kg and repeated until signs resolve, together with active cooling and treatment of hyperkalaemia and acidosis. Non-depolarising relaxants do not relieve the muscle rigidity, and cooling alone does not stop the hypermetabolic process.
- Question 6Trauma and Surgical Critical Caremedium
A 35-year-old injured in a road traffic collision has respiratory distress, hypotension, absent breath sounds and hyperresonance on the left side, and tracheal deviation to the right. According to current ATLS guidance, where should needle decompression be performed?
- ASixth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line
- BFourth or fifth intercostal space just anterior to the mid-axillary line
- CSecond intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line
- DSeventh intercostal space in the posterior axillary line
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Fourth or fifth intercostal space just anterior to the mid-axillary line
Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis requiring immediate decompression; the ATLS 10th edition recommends the fourth or fifth intercostal space just anterior to the mid-axillary line in adults, because the chest wall there is thinner and the needle is more likely to reach the pleural space. The second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line remains an option in children. Definitive treatment is a chest tube.
- Question 7Trauma and Surgical Critical Carehard
A 28-year-old man has blunt abdominal trauma. He is haemodynamically stable after 1 litre of crystalloid and has no peritonitis. CT shows a grade III splenic laceration with an active contrast blush and moderate haemoperitoneum. What is the most appropriate management?
- AWard observation without any intervention
- BEmergency laparotomy and splenectomy
- CSplenic angioembolisation with close monitoring
- DLaparoscopic splenic repair
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Splenic angioembolisation with close monitoring
Haemodynamically stable patients with splenic injury are managed non-operatively, but an active contrast blush indicates ongoing arterial bleeding and a high risk of failure, so angioembolisation is recommended as part of non-operative management in a unit with monitoring and theatre availability. Splenectomy is reserved for haemodynamic instability or failure of non-operative management. Observation alone with a blush has a higher failure rate.
- Question 8Breast and Endocrine Surgerymedium
Four hours after a total thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old woman develops rapidly increasing neck swelling, stridor and distress. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
- AArrange an urgent CT scan of the neck
- BGive intravenous calcium gluconate
- CGive nebulised adrenaline and observe
- DOpen the wound and evacuate the haematoma at the bedside
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Open the wound and evacuate the haematoma at the bedside
An expanding haematoma beneath the strap muscles causes venous and lymphatic congestion and laryngeal oedema, threatening the airway. The wound skin and strap muscle sutures should be opened immediately at the bedside to evacuate the clot (the 'SCOOP' approach) before definitive control in theatre. Imaging delays life-saving decompression, and hypocalcaemia causes tetany or laryngospasm rather than neck swelling.
Halfway - how are you scoring?
Test yourself under real exam conditions
The free 25-question mock is timed and scored against the pass mark, domain by domain, so you see exactly where you are losing marks. The full General Surgery bank has 3 full-length papers (about 488 questions) for AED 289, one-time.
- Question 9Breast and Endocrine Surgerymedium
A 45-year-old woman has a 4 cm adrenal mass and plasma free metanephrines five times the upper limit of normal. She is scheduled for laparoscopic adrenalectomy. Which preoperative preparation is most appropriate?
- AProceed to surgery without specific medical preparation
- BAlpha-blockade for 1 to 2 weeks, adding a beta-blocker if tachycardic, with liberal salt and fluid
- CHydrocortisone cover as the main preoperative preparation
- DBeta-blockade first, adding alpha-blockade once heart rate is controlled
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Alpha-blockade for 1 to 2 weeks, adding a beta-blocker if tachycardic, with liberal salt and fluid
Phaeochromocytoma requires preoperative alpha-adrenergic blockade (for example doxazosin or phenoxybenzamine) for 7 to 14 days to control blood pressure and restore intravascular volume, with a high-salt diet and fluids, and a beta-blocker added only after alpha-blockade to control tachycardia. Starting a beta-blocker first leaves alpha-mediated vasoconstriction unopposed and can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. Hydrocortisone does not prevent catecholamine surges.
- Question 10Hernia, Abdominal Wall, Skin and Soft Tissueeasy
A 68-year-old woman has a small, irreducible, non-tender groin lump lying below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. What is the most appropriate management?
- AUltrasound surveillance every 6 months
- BEarly surgical repair because of the high risk of strangulation
- CRepair only if the lump becomes painful
- DWatchful waiting with a truss
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Early surgical repair because of the high risk of strangulation
A lump below and lateral to the pubic tubercle is typical of a femoral hernia, which has a narrow, rigid neck and a high risk of incarceration and strangulation. All femoral hernias should therefore be repaired promptly, even if asymptomatic. Watchful waiting is an option for minimally symptomatic inguinal hernias, not femoral hernias.
- Question 11Colorectal, Appendix and Perianal Surgerymedium
An 82-year-old nursing home resident has gross abdominal distension and absolute constipation. Radiographs show a large 'coffee bean' loop arising from the pelvis. He has no peritonitis, and CT shows no features of ischaemia or perforation. What is the most appropriate initial management?
- AIntravenous neostigmine infusion
- BEmergency Hartmann procedure
- CGastrografin enema as definitive treatment
- DEndoscopic decompression with flexible sigmoidoscopy and a flatus tube
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Endoscopic decompression with flexible sigmoidoscopy and a flatus tube
Uncomplicated sigmoid volvulus is first managed by endoscopic detorsion and decompression, which succeeds in most patients, followed by consideration of elective sigmoid resection because recurrence is common. Emergency resection is reserved for peritonitis, ischaemia, perforation or failed decompression. Neostigmine is used for acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, not mechanical volvulus.
- Question 12Acute Abdomen and Gastrointestinal Bleedinghard
A 74-year-old man passes large volumes of fresh red blood per rectum. After initial resuscitation his shock index (heart rate divided by systolic blood pressure) remains above 1. An upper GI source is considered unlikely. What is the most appropriate next investigation?
- ACT angiography to localise bleeding before targeted embolisation
- BCapsule endoscopy
- CUrgent unprepared colonoscopy within 1 hour
- DTechnetium-labelled red cell scan
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. CT angiography to localise bleeding before targeted embolisation
In lower GI bleeding that remains unstable after resuscitation (shock index above 1), current guidance recommends CT angiography to localise the bleeding point rapidly, followed by catheter angiography and embolisation, or surgery if this fails. Colonoscopy is preferred for stable patients after bowel preparation, as visibility is poor in an unprepared colon during heavy bleeding. Red cell scans and capsule endoscopy are too slow or unsuitable for unstable bleeding.
- Question 13Hepatobiliary, Pancreas and Spleenmedium
A 48-year-old woman has mild acute gallstone pancreatitis that settles within 3 days. There is no cholangitis or peripancreatic collection. When should cholecystectomy be performed?
- AAfter 6 to 8 weeks to allow inflammation to settle
- BOnly if she has a second attack
- CDuring the same admission, once she has recovered
- DNot at all if an ERCP sphincterotomy is performed
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. During the same admission, once she has recovered
After mild gallstone pancreatitis, same-admission cholecystectomy reduces recurrent gallstone-related complications compared with delayed surgery, as shown in the PONCHO trial, without increasing operative difficulty. Waiting several weeks exposes patients to recurrence, which can be severe. Sphincterotomy reduces recurrent pancreatitis but not cholecystitis or biliary colic, so cholecystectomy is still advised in fit patients.
- Question 14Subspecialty Surgery (Vascular, Paediatric, Thoracic, Plastic) and Transplantationhard
A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation who is not anticoagulated has 5 hours of a cold, pale right leg. There is sensory loss extending above the toes and mild weakness of ankle dorsiflexion. Arterial Doppler signals at the ankle are inaudible and venous signals are present. Intravenous heparin has been given. What is the most appropriate management?
- AImmediate revascularisation, such as surgical embolectomy
- BCatheter-directed thrombolysis over 24 to 48 hours
- CPrimary amputation
- DCT angiography as an outpatient within 1 week
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Immediate revascularisation, such as surgical embolectomy
Sensory loss beyond the toes with mild motor weakness and absent arterial but present venous Doppler signals define Rutherford class IIb (immediately threatened) acute limb ischaemia, which needs immediate revascularisation; in an embolic occlusion, surgical embolectomy is the usual option. Catheter-directed thrombolysis takes too long for an immediately threatened limb and is more suitable for class IIa. Primary amputation is reserved for irreversible ischaemia with profound paralysis and absent venous signals.
- Question 15Professionalism, Ethics, Patient Safety and Evidence-Based Surgeryeasy
In a randomised controlled trial comparing two hernia repair techniques, what is the main purpose of random allocation?
- ATo guarantee that results apply to all populations
- BTo increase the number of patients recruited
- CTo balance known and unknown confounding factors between the groups
- DTo ensure the surgeons do not know which repair they perform
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. To balance known and unknown confounding factors between the groups
Randomisation ensures that, on average, both measured and unmeasured prognostic factors are distributed equally between groups, so differences in outcome can be attributed to the intervention. Concealing allocation from participants or assessors is blinding, which is a different safeguard and usually impossible for the operating surgeon. Randomisation does not increase recruitment or guarantee generalisability.
What the General Surgery exam covers
The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.
Fluid, Electrolyte, Acid-Base and Surgical Nutrition
~5%Body fluid compartments, daily maintenance requirements and third-space losses · Choice of crystalloid vs colloid; balanced solutions vs 0.9% saline and hyperchloraemic acidosis · Hyponatraemia
Shock, Haemostasis, Transfusion and Coagulation
~5%Classification of shock · ATLS haemorrhagic shock classes I-IV and physiological endpoints of resuscitation · Haemodynamic monitoring
Surgical Infection, Sepsis and Antimicrobial Stewardship
~5%Sepsis and septic shock · Source control principles · Surgical site infection
Perioperative Care, Anaesthesia, Pain and Surgical Complications
~9%Preoperative risk assessment · Cardiac risk stratification and management of ischaemic heart disease, stents and beta-blockade · Respiratory optimisation
Trauma and Surgical Critical Care
~5%ATLS primary and secondary survey; airway with C-spine control, adjuncts and reassessment · Tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, flail chest and cardiac tamponade · Emergency department thoracotomy
Breast and Endocrine Surgery
~10%Triple assessment of a breast lump · Benign breast disease · Breast infection
Hernia, Abdominal Wall, Skin and Soft Tissue
~6%Inguinal hernia anatomy · Open repair techniques (Lichtenstein, Shouldice) vs laparoscopic TEP/TAPP; mesh choice and fixation · Femoral hernia
Upper GI, Foregut and Bariatric/Metabolic Surgery
~11%GORD · Hiatus hernia types I-IV; paraoesophageal hernia, gastric volvulus and repair principles · Achalasia
Colorectal, Appendix and Perianal Surgery
~8%Acute appendicitis · Appendiceal mass and abscess; appendiceal neoplasms, mucocele and pseudomyxoma peritonei · Diverticular disease
Acute Abdomen and Gastrointestinal Bleeding
~11%Systematic approach to acute abdominal pain · Diagnostic imaging strategy · Generalised peritonitis and perforated viscus
Hepatobiliary, Pancreas and Spleen
~13%Biliary anatomy, anatomical variants, Calot triangle and the critical view of safety · Gallstone disease · Difficult cholecystectomy
Subspecialty Surgery (Vascular, Paediatric, Thoracic, Plastic) and Transplantation
~9%Peripheral arterial disease · Acute limb ischaemia · Abdominal aortic aneurysm
How to answer these questions
Read the last line of the stem first, then the vignette: you will know whether it asks for a diagnosis, the next investigation or the next step in management.
"Most appropriate next step" means the next thing you would actually do, in order - stabilise, then confirm, then treat.
Specialist papers lean on current international guidelines; when an option sounds outdated, it usually is.
Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.
General Surgery exam questions: FAQs
How many questions are in the General Surgery Prometric exam?
What is the pass mark for the General Surgery exam?
Are these real exam questions?
Is the General Surgery exam the same in every GCC country?
How should I use these questions?
Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.
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