Community & Public Health Medicine Prometric exam questions with answers
15 original practice questions written to the Community & Public Health Medicine exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the Community & Public Health Medicine exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP and every other GCC regulator, from their own published rules.
- 15
- Free questions
- 65%
- DHA pass mark
- 150
- Questions on the DHA exam
- 12
- Questions in the free mock
Quick answer
The Community & Public Health Medicine exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours at DHA (pass mark 65%) and 150 MCQs in 3 hours at QCHP (pass mark 65%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 12-question timed mock.
The Community & Public Health Medicine exam in every GCC country
DHA, QCHP publish an exact Community & Public Health Medicine exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.
| Regulator | Exam | Format | Pass mark | Fee per attempt | Practise |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| DHA Dubai | Specialist Community Medicine (SCO6012) | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | USD 280 (about AED 1,030) | DHA questions → |
| DOH Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra | DOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Written + oral/OSCE | Pass / fail only | Not published | DOH questions → |
| MOHAP Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah | MOHAP licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based | Not published | Not published | MOHAP questions → |
| SHA Emirate of Sharjah | SHA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Set at assessment | Not published | Not published | SHA questions → |
| SCFHS Kingdom of Saudi Arabia | SCFHS licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 200 MCQs, 240 min | 500-560 of 800 | Not published | SCFHS questions → |
| QCHP State of Qatar | Specialist Community Medicine | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | Not published | QCHP questions → |
| NHRA Kingdom of Bahrain | NHRA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Prometric CBT | Not published | Not published | NHRA questions → |
| OMSB Sultanate of Oman | OMSB licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based OC exam | Not published | Not published | OMSB questions → |
| Kuwait MOH State of Kuwait | Kuwait MOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 150 MCQs, 170 min | 60-70% | Not published | Kuwait MOH questions → |
exact exam published for Community & Public Health Medicine
Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.
15 Community & Public Health Medicine exam questions with answers
Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.
- Question 1Biostatisticsmedium
A test is applied to 1000 people, 100 of whom have the disease. It is positive in 90 of the diseased and negative in 810 of the non-diseased. What is the positive predictive value?
- A90%
- B10%
- C99%
- D50%
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 50%
True positives are 90 and false positives are 900 - 810 = 90, so PPV = 90/180 = 50%. Sensitivity and specificity are both 90%, which is why 90% is tempting, but predictive value also depends on prevalence.
- Question 2Biostatisticshard
Two radiologists reading the same chest films agree on 80% of them. The agreement expected by chance alone is 50%. What is Cohen's kappa?
- A0.6
- B0.3
- C0.8
- D0.4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. 0.6
Kappa = (observed - expected)/(1 - expected) = (0.8 - 0.5)/(1 - 0.5) = 0.6. The value 0.3 is only the numerator; 0.8 is raw agreement, which kappa corrects for chance.
- Question 3Communicable Disease Controlmedium
A previously unvaccinated man has a deep bite on the hand from a stray dog that cannot be observed. The wound has been washed thoroughly. What is the most appropriate management?
- ARabies immunoglobulin into the wound and vaccine
- BRabies vaccine course without immunoglobulin
- CObserve and vaccinate only if symptoms occur
- DTetanus toxoid and oral antibiotics only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Rabies immunoglobulin into the wound and vaccine
A transdermal bite is a category III exposure; an unvaccinated person needs wound care, rabies immunoglobulin infiltrated into the wound and a full vaccine course. Vaccine alone is enough for category II exposures, not this one.
- Question 4Environmental and Occupational Healthmedium
A 50-year-old sandblaster has chronic silicosis. He has a markedly increased risk of which infection?
- APneumocystis pneumonia
- BLegionnaires' disease
- CQ fever
- DPulmonary tuberculosis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Pulmonary tuberculosis
Silica impairs macrophage function, so silicosis greatly increases the risk of tuberculosis, and workers need TB screening. Pneumocystis pneumonia is associated with cellular immunodeficiency such as advanced HIV, not silicosis.
- Question 5Health Systems, Policy, Promotion and Ethicseasy
A smoker says he plans to quit sometime in the next 6 months but has not set a date. Which stage of change is he in?
- APrecontemplation
- BPreparation
- CContemplation
- DAction
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Contemplation
Contemplation means intending to change within about 6 months without firm plans. Preparation involves intending to act within the next month, often with a set date or concrete steps.
- Question 6Epidemiology and Research Methodsmedium
A trial of a new antihypertensive drug is being planned. Which design feature best controls confounding by both known and unknown factors?
- AMatching on age and sex
- BRestricting enrolment to men
- CStratified analysis by smoking
- DRandom allocation of participants
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Random allocation of participants
Randomisation, with adequate sample size, distributes both measured and unmeasured confounders evenly between groups. Matching, restriction and stratification only deal with confounders that have been identified and measured.
- Question 7Maternal, Child Health and Nutritionhard
An 18-month-old has a mid-upper arm circumference of 108 mm, no oedema, passes the appetite test and has no medical complications. What is the most appropriate management?
- AInpatient stabilisation with F-75 milk
- BSupplementary feeding with fortified flour
- COutpatient care with therapeutic food (RUTF)
- DCounselling and review in 3 months
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Outpatient care with therapeutic food (RUTF)
A MUAC below 115 mm indicates severe acute malnutrition; without complications and with a good appetite, the child can be treated as an outpatient with RUTF. Inpatient F-75 is for complicated cases or those who fail the appetite test.
- Question 8Maternal, Child Health and Nutritioneasy
A mother asks how long she should give her newborn breast milk only. What does WHO recommend for exclusive breastfeeding?
- AThe first 6 months
- BThe first 4 months
- CThe first 9 months
- DThe first 12 months
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. The first 6 months
WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months, then adding complementary foods with continued breastfeeding to 2 years or beyond. Starting solids at 4 months is no longer the recommendation.
Halfway - how are you scoring?
Test yourself under real exam conditions
The free 12-question mock is timed and scored against the pass mark, domain by domain, so you see exactly where you are losing marks. The full Community & Public Health Medicine bank has 3 full-length papers (about 450 questions) for AED 289, one-time.
- Question 9Health Systems, Policy, Promotion and Ethicsmedium
A ministry compares two diabetes programmes by cost per quality-adjusted life year gained. What type of economic evaluation is this?
- ACost-benefit analysis
- BCost-minimisation analysis
- CCost-consequence analysis
- DCost-utility analysis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Cost-utility analysis
Cost-utility analysis measures outcomes in utility-weighted units such as QALYs. Cost-benefit analysis values all outcomes in money, and cost-minimisation assumes outcomes are equal.
- Question 10Immunization and Vaccine-Preventable Diseasesmedium
During a cold-chain audit, the refrigerator log shows the temperature fell below 0 C overnight. Which test checks whether adsorbed vaccines such as hepatitis B were damaged?
- AVaccine vial monitor reading
- BPotency titration on site
- CVisual check for colour change
- DShake test
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Shake test
The shake test detects freeze damage in aluminium-adsorbed vaccines: a frozen vial sediments faster than a control vial that was deliberately frozen. The vaccine vial monitor records cumulative heat exposure, not freezing.
- Question 11Maternal, Child Health and Nutritionmedium
A region recorded 45 maternal deaths and 150,000 live births last year. What is the maternal mortality ratio?
- A45 per 100,000 live births
- B30 per 100,000 live births
- C300 per 100,000 live births
- D3 per 100,000 live births
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. 30 per 100,000 live births
The maternal mortality ratio is maternal deaths per 100,000 live births: 45/150,000 x 100,000 = 30. Quoting the raw number of deaths (45) ignores the denominator.
- Question 12Non-Communicable Diseases and Screeningmedium
Which disease characteristic most strongly supports starting a population screening programme?
- AVery low prevalence in the target group
- BRapid progression from onset to death
- CNo effective treatment is available
- DA recognisable early asymptomatic stage
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. A recognisable early asymptomatic stage
Wilson and Jungner require a recognisable latent or early symptomatic stage in which treatment improves outcome. Rapid progression and lack of treatment both remove the benefit of early detection.
- Question 13Non-Communicable Diseases and Screeningmedium
A patient joins cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction to restore function and prevent recurrence. Which level of prevention is this?
- APrimary prevention
- BTertiary prevention
- CSecondary prevention
- DPrimordial prevention
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Tertiary prevention
Tertiary prevention reduces complications and disability once disease is established. Secondary prevention is early detection of disease before symptoms, such as screening.
- Question 14Non-Communicable Diseases and Screeningmedium
An asymptomatic 45-year-old has an HbA1c of 52 mmol/mol on two separate occasions. How should this be interpreted?
- APrediabetes; repeat in a year
- BNormal for this age group
- CDiagnostic of diabetes
- DNeeds a glucose tolerance test
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Diagnostic of diabetes
An HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or more, confirmed on repeat testing, is diagnostic of diabetes. Prediabetes covers values below this threshold, so 52 mmol/mol is already in the diabetic range.
- Question 15Non-Communicable Diseases and Screeningmedium
A 55-year-old in an organised bowel screening programme has a positive faecal immunochemical test. What is the next step?
- ARefer for colonoscopy
- BRepeat the FIT in 12 months
- CRequest a CT of the abdomen
- DMeasure serum CEA level
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Refer for colonoscopy
A positive stool-based screening test must be followed by colonoscopy; the screening is incomplete without it. Repeating the FIT or measuring CEA does not exclude neoplasia.
What the Community & Public Health Medicine exam covers
The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.
Epidemiology and Research Methods
~18%Measures of disease frequency · Measures of association · Cohort, case-control and cross-sectional designs
Biostatistics
~14%Sensitivity, specificity and predictive values · Effect of prevalence on predictive values · Hypothesis testing, p values and type I and II errors
Communicable Disease Control
~16%Outbreak investigation steps and epidemic curves · Attack rates, secondary attack rate and incubation periods · Basic reproduction number and herd immunity threshold
Immunization and Vaccine-Preventable Diseases
~10%National immunization schedules and catch-up · Cold chain, vaccine vial monitors and shake test · Live versus inactivated vaccines
Non-Communicable Diseases and Screening
~12%Levels of prevention · Wilson and Jungner screening criteria · High-risk versus population strategy (Rose)
Environmental and Occupational Health
~10%Drinking water safety and chlorination · Heat-related illness prevention in workers · Hierarchy of hazard controls
Maternal, Child Health and Nutrition
~10%Maternal and infant mortality indicators · Breastfeeding and complementary feeding · Growth monitoring and WHO growth standards
Health Systems, Policy, Promotion and Ethics
~10%Health promotion models · Health economics · Primary health care and universal health coverage
How to answer these questions
Read the last line of the stem first, then the vignette: you will know whether it asks for a diagnosis, the next investigation or the next step in management.
"Most appropriate next step" means the next thing you would actually do, in order - stabilise, then confirm, then treat.
Specialist papers lean on current international guidelines; when an option sounds outdated, it usually is.
Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.
Community & Public Health Medicine exam questions: FAQs
How many questions are in the Community & Public Health Medicine Prometric exam?
What is the pass mark for the Community & Public Health Medicine exam?
Are these real exam questions?
Is the Community & Public Health Medicine exam the same in every GCC country?
How should I use these questions?
Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.
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