In a can't intubate, can't oxygenate emergency, which equipment is recommended for the scalpel cricothyroidotomy technique?

Size 10 scalpel, bougie and size 6.0 cuffed tube

Size 15 scalpel, guidewire and size 8.0 tube

14 G cannula and a bag-valve mask only

Size 11 scalpel and a size 4.0 uncuffed tube

During a long case on a circle system, the capnograph baseline rises above zero and the absorbent has changed colour. What is the most likely cause?

Exhausted carbon dioxide absorbent

Leak at the patient's tracheal tube cuff

During the pre-use machine check, how is the oxygen analyser checked?

It reads about 21% in room air and rises with oxygen flow

It reads 100% when the machine is switched off

It is checked only once a year by engineers

It is checked by pressing the oxygen flush valve only

A single-use stylet is still in its packet after a case where it was opened but not used. What should be done?

Discard it, as it must not be reprocessed

Reprocess it in the sterile services department

Keep it for training on patients

During a sevoflurane anaesthetic, which early sign most suggests malignant hyperthermia?

Unexplained rising end-tidal CO2 with tachycardia

Falling end-tidal CO2 with bradycardia

Low body temperature in recovery

Slow emergence after a long case

A patient rescued from a house fire has an SpO2 of 99% on the pulse oximeter. Why might this be misleading?

Carboxyhaemoglobin is read as oxyhaemoglobin

Methaemoglobin causes falsely high values

Smoke particles block the probe light

Anaemia always lowers the reading

A patient develops laryngospasm with stridor after extubation. What is the initial management?

100% oxygen with CPAP and jaw thrust

Flat supine position and observation

Which holding time and temperature are standard for a porous-load steam steriliser cycle?

134 to 137 degrees C for at least 3 minutes

121 to 124 degrees C for at least 1 minute

100 to 105 degrees C for at least 10 minutes

160 to 170 degrees C for at least 2 minutes

How should a non-invasive blood pressure cuff be sized?

Bladder width about 40% of arm circumference

Bladder width equal to the arm circumference

Any adult cuff fits all adult arms

Bladder width about 10% of arm circumference

Where should a monopolar diathermy return electrode (plate) be placed?

On clean, dry skin over well-perfused muscle near the site

Over a bony prominence near the operating site

On hairy skin far from the operating site

A patient is being moved into the MRI scanner room under anaesthesia. Which equipment can be taken into the room?

Equipment labelled MR Conditional for that scanner

Any standard steel oxygen cylinder if strapped down

A standard laryngoscope and transport monitor

Any equipment, provided it is used only briefly

Before a unit of red cells is given in theatre, what must be checked at the patient's side?

Patient identity against the blood unit and compatibility label

Only the blood group written on the bag

Only the expiry date on the bag

The colour of the unit compared with the last one

Which spinal needle design is associated with the lowest rate of post-dural puncture headache?

Pencil-point needle such as Whitacre

Cutting Quincke needle of large gauge

Free · 15 questions with answers · every GCC exam

Anesthesia Technologist Prometric exam questions with answers

15 original practice questions written to the Anesthesia Technologist exam blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong. Below them: the Anesthesia Technologist exam's format, pass mark and fee at DHA, DOH, SCFHS, QCHP and every other GCC regulator, from their own published rules.

15
Free questions: 60%
DHA pass mark: 150
Questions on the DHA exam: 12
Questions in the free mock

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Quick answer

The Anesthesia Technologist exam is 150 MCQs in 3 hours at DHA (pass mark 60%) and 150 MCQs in 3 hours at QCHP (pass mark 50%). Below are 15 original practice questions written to the official blueprint, each with the answer and why the other options are wrong, plus a free 12-question timed mock.

The Anesthesia Technologist exam in every GCC country

DHA, QCHP publish an exact Anesthesia Technologist exam; the others apply one format to every title. Figures come from each regulator's own exam pages - anything not published says so.

Anesthesia Technologist licensing exam in every GCC country
Regulator	Exam	Format	Pass mark	Fee per attempt	Practise
DHA Dubai	Anesthesia Technologist (ANA5702)	150 MCQs in 3 hours	60%	USD 240 (about AED 880)	DHA questions →
DOH Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra	DOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format	Written + oral/OSCE	Pass / fail only	Not published	DOH questions →
MOHAP Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah	MOHAP licensing exam Regulator-wide format	Computer-based	Not published	Not published	MOHAP questions →
SHA Emirate of Sharjah	SHA licensing exam Regulator-wide format	Set at assessment	Not published	Not published	SHA questions →
SCFHS Kingdom of Saudi Arabia	SCFHS licensing exam Regulator-wide format	200 MCQs, 240 min	500-560 of 800	Not published	SCFHS questions →
QCHP State of Qatar	Anaesthesia Technologist	150 MCQs in 3 hours	50%	Not published	QCHP questions →
NHRA Kingdom of Bahrain	NHRA licensing exam Regulator-wide format	Prometric CBT	Not published	Not published	NHRA questions →
OMSB Sultanate of Oman	OMSB licensing exam Regulator-wide format	Computer-based OC exam	Not published	Not published	OMSB questions →
Kuwait MOH State of Kuwait	Kuwait MOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format	150 MCQs, 170 min	60-70%	Not published	Kuwait MOH questions →

exact exam published for Anesthesia Technologist

Pass marks, attempts and fees change - confirm yours on the regulator's exam page before you book.

15 Anesthesia Technologist exam questions with answers

Choose your answer first, then open the explanation. The set covers the main blueprint domains at a mix of easy, medium and hard.

Question 1Airway management equipment and assistancemedium
During rapid sequence induction, how much cricoid pressure is applied after the patient loses consciousness?
1. A10 newtons
2. B60 newtons
3. C30 newtons
4. D100 newtons
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 30 newtons
Cricoid pressure is usually 10 N while the patient is awake, increasing to 30 N after loss of consciousness. Excess force can distort the airway and make intubation difficult.
Question 2Airway management equipment and assistancehard
In a can't intubate, can't oxygenate emergency, which equipment is recommended for the scalpel cricothyroidotomy technique?
1. ASize 15 scalpel, guidewire and size 8.0 tube
2. B14 G cannula and a bag-valve mask only
3. CSize 10 scalpel, bougie and size 6.0 cuffed tube
4. DSize 11 scalpel and a size 4.0 uncuffed tube
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Size 10 scalpel, bougie and size 6.0 cuffed tube
The DAS 2015 guideline recommends a scalpel-bougie-tube technique with a wide-blade size 10 scalpel, a bougie and a 6.0 mm cuffed tube. Narrow cannula techniques have high failure rates.
Question 3Anaesthesia machine, breathing systems and gas supplymedium
During a long case on a circle system, the capnograph baseline rises above zero and the absorbent has changed colour. What is the most likely cause?
1. ALeak at the patient's tracheal tube cuff
2. BFaulty oxygen analyser
3. CExhausted carbon dioxide absorbent
4. DDisconnection at the Y-piece
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. Exhausted carbon dioxide absorbent
A rising inspired CO2 (baseline not returning to zero) with indicator colour change shows the absorbent can no longer remove CO2 and should be changed. A disconnection causes loss of the capnogram, not a raised baseline.
Question 4Anaesthesia machine, breathing systems and gas supplymedium
During the pre-use machine check, how is the oxygen analyser checked?
1. AIt reads about 21% in room air and rises with oxygen flow
2. BIt reads 100% when the machine is switched off
3. CIt is checked only once a year by engineers
4. DIt is checked by pressing the oxygen flush valve only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. It reads about 21% in room air and rises with oxygen flow
The oxygen analyser should read about 21% in room air and approach 100% with oxygen flowing, confirming calibration before use. It is the key monitor for detecting a hypoxic mixture.
Question 5Infection control, cleaning and sterilisationeasy
A single-use stylet is still in its packet after a case where it was opened but not used. What should be done?
1. AReprocess it in the sterile services department
2. BDiscard it, as it must not be reprocessed
3. CWipe it and return it to stock
4. DKeep it for training on patients
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Discard it, as it must not be reprocessed
Single-use devices must not be reprocessed or reused, and once opened they should be discarded. Manufacturers do not validate them for cleaning or resterilisation.
Question 6Emergencies and crisis supportmedium
During a sevoflurane anaesthetic, which early sign most suggests malignant hyperthermia?
1. AFalling end-tidal CO2 with bradycardia
2. BUnexplained rising end-tidal CO2 with tachycardia
3. CLow body temperature in recovery
4. DSlow emergence after a long case
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. Unexplained rising end-tidal CO2 with tachycardia
An unexplained rise in end-tidal CO2 despite increased ventilation, with tachycardia and muscle rigidity, is an early sign of malignant hyperthermia. Raised temperature is often a later sign.
Question 7Patient monitoringhard
A patient rescued from a house fire has an SpO2 of 99% on the pulse oximeter. Why might this be misleading?
1. AMethaemoglobin causes falsely high values
2. BSmoke particles block the probe light
3. CAnaemia always lowers the reading
4. DCarboxyhaemoglobin is read as oxyhaemoglobin
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Carboxyhaemoglobin is read as oxyhaemoglobin
Standard two-wavelength oximeters cannot distinguish carboxyhaemoglobin from oxyhaemoglobin, so SpO2 is falsely high in carbon monoxide poisoning. Co-oximetry on a blood sample is needed.
Question 8Vascular access, regional anaesthesia and transfusioneasy
Which peripheral intravenous cannula gives the highest flow rate?
1. A18 G
2. B20 G
3. C14 G
4. D22 G
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 14 G
Flow increases sharply with internal radius (Poiseuille's law), so the 14 G cannula, with the largest bore, flows fastest. A 22 G cannula is the smallest of these.

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Question 9Emergencies and crisis supportmedium
A patient develops laryngospasm with stridor after extubation. What is the initial management?
1. AImmediate cricothyroidotomy
2. BFlat supine position and observation
3. C100% oxygen with CPAP and jaw thrust
4. DRemove the oxygen mask
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 100% oxygen with CPAP and jaw thrust
Initial management is 100% oxygen, continuous positive airway pressure via a tight-fitting mask and jaw thrust; a small dose of propofol or suxamethonium is used if this fails. Surgical airway is a last resort.
Question 10Infection control, cleaning and sterilisationmedium
Which holding time and temperature are standard for a porous-load steam steriliser cycle?
1. A121 to 124 degrees C for at least 1 minute
2. B100 to 105 degrees C for at least 10 minutes
3. C134 to 137 degrees C for at least 3 minutes
4. D160 to 170 degrees C for at least 2 minutes
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 134 to 137 degrees C for at least 3 minutes
Porous-load steam sterilisers typically hold at 134 to 137 degrees C for at least 3 minutes. Much shorter or cooler cycles do not reliably sterilise, and dry heat needs far longer exposure.
Question 11Patient monitoringmedium
How should a non-invasive blood pressure cuff be sized?
1. ABladder width about 40% of arm circumference
2. BBladder width equal to the arm circumference
3. CAny adult cuff fits all adult arms
4. DBladder width about 10% of arm circumference
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Bladder width about 40% of arm circumference
The cuff bladder width should be about 40% of the mid-arm circumference, and its length should cover at least 80%. A cuff that is too small overestimates pressure.
Question 12Patient safety, equipment safety and professional practicemedium
Where should a monopolar diathermy return electrode (plate) be placed?
1. AOn clean, dry skin over well-perfused muscle near the site
2. BOver a bony prominence near the operating site
3. COver a metal hip prosthesis
4. DOn hairy skin far from the operating site
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. On clean, dry skin over well-perfused muscle near the site
The plate should be over well-vascularised muscle, close to the surgical site, on clean dry skin, away from bony prominences, scars and metal implants. Poor contact concentrates current and can cause burns.
Question 13Patient safety, equipment safety and professional practicemedium
A patient is being moved into the MRI scanner room under anaesthesia. Which equipment can be taken into the room?
1. AEquipment labelled MR Conditional for that scanner
2. BAny standard steel oxygen cylinder if strapped down
3. CA standard laryngoscope and transport monitor
4. DAny equipment, provided it is used only briefly
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Equipment labelled MR Conditional for that scanner
Only equipment labelled MR Safe or MR Conditional for that scanner's conditions should enter the room, as ferromagnetic objects become dangerous projectiles. Standard steel cylinders have caused fatal accidents.
Question 14Vascular access, regional anaesthesia and transfusionmedium
Before a unit of red cells is given in theatre, what must be checked at the patient's side?
1. APatient identity against the blood unit and compatibility label
2. BOnly the blood group written on the bag
3. COnly the expiry date on the bag
4. DThe colour of the unit compared with the last one
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Patient identity against the blood unit and compatibility label
The final bedside check matches the patient's identification wristband against the compatibility label and the unit, and checks expiry and integrity. Most serious transfusion reactions are due to identification errors.
Question 15Vascular access, regional anaesthesia and transfusionmedium
Which spinal needle design is associated with the lowest rate of post-dural puncture headache?
1. ACutting Quincke needle of large gauge
2. BTuohy epidural needle
3. CLarge-bore 18 G Quincke needle
4. DPencil-point needle such as Whitacre
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Pencil-point needle such as Whitacre
Pencil-point (atraumatic) needles spread rather than cut dural fibres and cause fewer post-dural puncture headaches than cutting needles. Larger needles also increase headache risk.

What the Anesthesia Technologist exam covers

The blueprint groups questions into these domains. Weight your revision the same way - the heavier domains carry more of your score.

Anaesthesia machine, breathing systems and gas supply

~18%

Medical gas cylinders, pin index safety and pipeline supply · Cylinder contents and duration calculations · Vaporisers

Airway management equipment and assistance

~16%

Endotracheal tube sizing in adults and children · Cuff pressure management for tracheal tubes and supraglottic devices · Confirmation of tracheal intubation

Patient monitoring

~14%

Capnography waveforms and sudden changes in end-tidal CO2 · Non-invasive blood pressure · Invasive pressure monitoring

Anaesthetic pharmacology for technologists

~10%

Induction agents · Neuromuscular blockers and reversal agents · Syringe labelling and colour coding

Infection control, cleaning and sterilisation

~12%

Spaulding classification of equipment · Steam sterilisation parameters and process tests · Single-use versus reusable airway equipment

Emergencies and crisis support

~12%

Malignant hyperthermia · Local anaesthetic systemic toxicity and lipid emulsion · Perioperative anaphylaxis

Vascular access, regional anaesthesia and transfusion

~8%

Cannula gauge and flow rates · Spinal and epidural equipment · Blood product checking and blood warmers

Patient safety, equipment safety and professional practice

~10%

WHO Surgical Safety Checklist · Electrosurgical return electrode placement · Operating room fire prevention

How to answer these questions

Questions test applied practice: what you would do with this patient, this result or this image - not textbook definitions.

Safety items (radiation, infection control, patient identification, equipment checks) are high-yield and quick to revise.

Under time pressure, flag and move on: every question carries the same mark.

Aim to score comfortably above your regulator's pass mark - 10 to 15 points of margin - on timed, full-length practice before you book.

Anesthesia Technologist exam questions: FAQs

How many questions are in the Anesthesia Technologist Prometric exam?

It depends on the regulator: DHA 150 MCQs in 3 hours; QCHP 150 MCQs in 3 hours. The full table above lists every GCC regulator.

What is the pass mark for the Anesthesia Technologist exam?

DHA: 60%; QCHP: 50%. Pass marks are set exam by exam, so use your own regulator's figure.

Are these real exam questions?

No. Regulators do not release their papers, and anything sold as a leaked paper is unofficial and risky to rely on. These are original questions written to the official exam blueprint, at the level and in the style of the real exam, each with a worked explanation.

Is the Anesthesia Technologist exam the same in every GCC country?

The clinical content is broadly similar because the exams test the same safe practice, but the format, length, pass mark, attempts and fees differ by regulator. Prepare on the content once, then check your regulator's exact rules before you book.

How should I use these questions?

Answer each one before opening the explanation, and note why each wrong option is wrong. Then take the free 12-question timed mock to see your score against the pass mark, and move to full-length papers when you score comfortably above it.

Last reviewed September 2026. Questions are original and written to the published exam blueprint; they are not taken from any real paper.

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