DHA Anatomic Pathology exam questions
Surgical pathology, cytopathology, autopsy, molecular and lab management.
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DHA Anatomic Pathology exam at a glance
- Exam code
- HIS5571
- Questions
- 150 MCQs
- Duration
- 3 hours
- Pass mark
- 65%
- Fee per attempt
- USD 280 (about AED 1,030)
- Result
- Pass or fail, no score
From the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. Delivered by Prometric; three attempts in total across the UAE authorities. Full DHA exam guide.
Try two questions from this bank
Original questions from the bank - pick an answer to see the rationale and reference.
A breast core biopsy shows small discohesive tumour cells infiltrating in single files. Which immunohistochemical result best supports invasive lobular carcinoma?
Choose an answer to see the rationale.
An invasive breast carcinoma shows weak to moderate complete membrane staining for HER2 in more than 10% of tumour cells. What is the correct next step?
Choose an answer to see the rationale.
Not sure where you stand? Sit 12 of these questions free, timed at real exam pace, and see which domains you are weakest in.
Take the free mock exam →Liked those? The full bank has 450 questions at this standard - every one with a rationale and a reference.
Get the full bank - AED 289What's inside
- ✓3 full-length papers (~150 Q each)
- ✓450 questions, no overlap between papers
- ✓Four options, one unambiguous best answer
- ✓A full rationale on every question
- ✓A real guideline or textbook reference
- ✓Every sub-topic in the published blueprint
The Anatomic Pathology exam in every GCC country
| Regulator | Exam | Format | Pass mark | Fee per attempt | Practise |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| DHA Dubai | Specialist Anatomic Pathology (HIS5571) | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | USD 280 (about AED 1,030) | DHA questions → |
| DOH Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra | DOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Written + oral/OSCE | Pass / fail only | Not published | DOH questions → |
| MOHAP Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah | MOHAP licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based | Not published | Not published | MOHAP questions → |
| SHA Emirate of Sharjah | SHA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Set at assessment | Not published | Not published | SHA questions → |
| SCFHS Kingdom of Saudi Arabia | SCFHS licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 200 MCQs, 240 min | 500-560 of 800 | Not published | SCFHS questions → |
| QCHP State of Qatar | Specialist Anatomical Pathology | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | Not published | QCHP questions → |
| NHRA Kingdom of Bahrain | NHRA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Prometric CBT | Not published | Not published | NHRA questions → |
| OMSB Sultanate of Oman | OMSB licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based OC exam | Not published | Not published | OMSB questions → |
| Kuwait MOH State of Kuwait | Kuwait MOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 150 MCQs, 170 min | 60-70% | Not published | Kuwait MOH questions → |
exact exam published for Anatomic Pathology
From each regulator's own exam pages; anything a regulator does not publish says so. Assessment mode also depends on your licence title, so confirm your route on your eligibility notice.
Try 15 free Anatomic Pathology questions with answersDifferent from the samples on this page - each with a full explanationStart →What the Anatomic Pathology exam covers
The published blueprint for this exam breaks into 9 domains and 63 testable sub-topics. Our bank covers every one of them - here is the full map, so you can see exactly what you are expected to know.
General Pathology and Cell Injury~8%6 topics
- Reversible vs irreversible cell injury: morphology and mechanisms
- Patterns of necrosis: coagulative, liquefactive, caseous, fat, fibrinoid
- Apoptosis, autophagy and cellular adaptations (hypertrophy, atrophy, metaplasia)
- Acute and chronic inflammation, granulomatous inflammation
- Amyloidosis: types, Congo red staining, organ involvement
- Pathologic calcification and intracellular accumulations
Gastrointestinal, Liver and Pancreatobiliary Pathology~15%8 topics
- Esophagitis and Barrett esophagus: definition, dysplasia grading
- Gastritis, Helicobacter pylori, gastric adenocarcinoma (Lauren types), hereditary diffuse gastric cancer
- Celiac disease: Marsh classification and differential of intraepithelial lymphocytosis
- Inflammatory bowel disease: Crohn disease vs ulcerative colitis, dysplasia surveillance
- Colorectal polyps and carcinoma: serrated lesions, staging, margins and lymph node count
- Medical liver biopsy: steatohepatitis, hepatitis grading/staging, cholestatic disease
- Hepatic tumours: hepatocellular adenoma subtypes, hepatocellular carcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma
- Pancreatic cystic lesions (IPMN, MCN, SCN) and ductal adenocarcinoma
Breast and Gynecologic Pathology~15%8 topics
- Benign breast lesions: fibroadenoma, phyllodes tumour, papillary lesions, radial scar
- Ductal vs lobular neoplasia and E-cadherin
- Breast biomarkers: ER, PR, HER2 scoring and reflex ISH, Ki-67
- Cervical squamous intraepithelial lesions, p16 and HPV
- Endometrial hyperplasia/EIN and endometrial carcinoma molecular classification
- Ovarian epithelial tumours: high-grade vs low-grade serous, endometrioid, clear cell, mucinous
- Ovarian sex cord-stromal and germ cell tumours
- Gestational trophoblastic disease: complete vs partial mole, p57
Genitourinary and Renal Pathology~10%7 topics
- Prostate adenocarcinoma: Gleason scoring and ISUP grade groups, basal cell markers
- Renal cell carcinoma subtypes and immunoprofiles
- Urothelial neoplasia: papillary tumours, carcinoma in situ, invasion staging
- Testicular germ cell tumours: seminoma vs non-seminomatous tumours, GCNIS
- Glomerular disease: membranous, minimal change, FSGS, IgA nephropathy
- Lupus nephritis classification and renal transplant rejection (Banff)
- Paediatric renal tumours: Wilms tumour
Head and Neck, Endocrine and Thoracic Pathology~12%7 topics
- Thyroid neoplasms: papillary, follicular, medullary and anaplastic carcinoma
- Parathyroid and adrenal lesions, paraganglioma and pheochromocytoma
- Salivary gland tumours: pleomorphic adenoma, Warthin tumour, mucoepidermoid carcinoma
- Oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma and HPV/p16 status
- Lung carcinoma classification: adenocarcinoma patterns, squamous, small cell, carcinoid
- Pleural pathology: mesothelioma vs metastatic adenocarcinoma
- Interstitial lung disease patterns: UIP, NSIP, organising pneumonia
Hematopathology, Bone and Soft Tissue Pathology~15%8 topics
- Classic Hodgkin lymphoma subtypes and immunophenotype
- Small B-cell lymphomas: follicular, mantle cell, CLL/SLL, marginal zone
- Aggressive B-cell lymphomas: diffuse large B-cell and Burkitt lymphoma
- T-cell lymphomas and reactive lymphadenopathy patterns
- Small round blue cell tumours: Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, neuroblastoma
- Soft tissue sarcomas and translocation-defined tumours
- Bone tumours: osteosarcoma, giant cell tumour, chondroid lesions
- Gastrointestinal stromal tumour and other mesenchymal lesions
Cytopathology~12%7 topics
- Cervical cytology: Bethesda System categories and HPV co-testing
- Thyroid FNA: Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology
- Urine cytology: Paris System
- Serous effusion cytology: reactive mesothelium vs metastatic carcinoma
- Lung and lymph node FNA, rapid on-site evaluation
- Salivary gland FNA: Milan System
- Specimen preparation: fixation, Papanicolaou and Romanowsky stains, cell blocks
Immunohistochemistry and Molecular Pathology~8%6 topics
- Diagnostic immunohistochemistry panels for carcinoma of unknown primary (CK7/CK20, lineage markers)
- Mismatch repair IHC, microsatellite instability and Lynch syndrome work-up
- Predictive biomarkers in lung cancer: EGFR, ALK, ROS1, PD-L1
- FISH, PCR and next-generation sequencing: principles and specimen requirements
- Tumour-specific translocations and fusion genes
- IHC controls, validation and pre-analytic variables
Autopsy, Laboratory Management, Quality and Ethics~5%6 topics
- Specimen identification, labelling errors and chain of custody
- Fixation and grossing standards: formalin ratio, cold ischaemia and fixation times
- Frozen section indications, limitations and turnaround
- Amended and addended reports, critical value communication
- Autopsy consent, medicolegal deaths and postmortem changes
- Quality assurance, laboratory safety, confidentiality and consent for tissue use
6 worked Anatomic Pathology practice questions
Original exam-style questions from the bank, spread across the blueprint domains. They are not real or recalled exam questions. Try each one, then open the answer for the rationale and reference. None of them appear in the free mock exam, so reading them will not spoil it.
Question 1 · Breast and Gynecologic Pathology
An ovarian tumour with slit-like spaces, marked nuclear atypia and high mitotic activity is PAX8 positive and WT1 positive, with complete absence of p53 staining in all tumour cells. Which diagnosis is most likely?
- AHigh-grade serous carcinoma
- BEndometrioid carcinoma
- CClear cell carcinoma
- DLow-grade serous carcinoma
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. High-grade serous carcinoma
Complete absence of p53 staining is an aberrant (null) pattern indicating TP53 mutation, and with WT1 and PAX8 positivity this supports high-grade serous carcinoma. Clear cell and endometrioid carcinomas are usually WT1 negative, and low-grade serous carcinoma shows wild-type p53 staining.
Reference: WHO Classification of Tumours: Female Genital Tumours, 5th ed.
Question 2 · Cytopathology
A cervical Pap test shows superficial squamous cells with sharply defined perinuclear cavities, enlarged hyperchromatic nuclei and binucleation. How should this be reported?
- AHigh-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
- BLow-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
- CAtypical squamous cells, cannot exclude HSIL
- DNegative, reactive changes
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
Koilocytes in mature squamous cells with nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia indicate HPV cytopathic effect and are reported as LSIL. HSIL involves smaller, immature cells with high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratios.
Reference: The Bethesda System for Reporting Cervical Cytology, 3rd ed.
Question 3 · Cytopathology
A cytotechnologist prepares direct smears from a lymph node FNA for Papanicolaou staining. How should these smears be handled immediately?
- AAir-dry completely before fixing
- BWet-fix at once in 95% ethanol
- CFix in 10% formalin for one hour
- DHeat-fix over a flame
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Wet-fix at once in 95% ethanol
Papanicolaou staining requires immediate wet fixation, usually in 95% ethanol, to preserve nuclear detail. Air-dried smears are used for Romanowsky stains such as Diff-Quik, and air-drying artefact degrades Pap-stained nuclei.
Reference: Koss' Diagnostic Cytology and Its Histopathologic Bases, 5th ed.
Question 4 · Gastrointestinal, Liver and Pancreatobiliary Pathology
A 45-year-old woman has a multilocular cyst in the pancreatic tail that does not communicate with the main duct. Histology shows mucinous epithelium over a densely cellular stroma that is positive for oestrogen and progesterone receptors. What is the diagnosis?
- ASerous cystadenoma
- BIntraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm
- CMucinous cystic neoplasm
- DSolid pseudopapillary neoplasm
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Mucinous cystic neoplasm
Ovarian-type stroma expressing ER and PR is required for a mucinous cystic neoplasm, which typically occurs in the body or tail in women and lacks duct communication. IPMN arises within and communicates with the duct system and lacks ovarian-type stroma.
Reference: WHO Classification of Tumours: Digestive System Tumours, 5th ed.
Question 5 · Genitourinary and Renal Pathology
A renal tumour consists of large polygonal cells with pale reticulated cytoplasm, prominent cell borders, wrinkled nuclei and perinuclear halos. Which immunoprofile best supports chromophobe renal cell carcinoma?
- ACK7 diffuse positive, CD117 positive
- BCK7 negative, CA9 diffuse membranous
- CCK7 negative, CD117 positive, patchy
- DAMACR diffuse positive, CK7 negative
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. CK7 diffuse positive, CD117 positive
Chromophobe RCC typically shows diffuse membranous CK7 and CD117 positivity. Oncocytoma is usually CD117 positive with CK7 negative or only scattered cells, clear cell RCC shows box-like CA9, and papillary RCC is AMACR positive.
Reference: WHO Classification of Tumours: Urinary and Male Genital Tumours, 5th ed.
Question 6 · Head and Neck, Endocrine and Thoracic Pathology
A pleural biopsy shows an epithelioid malignant tumour. Which combination of results most strongly favours epithelioid mesothelioma over metastatic lung adenocarcinoma?
- ANapsin A positive, D2-40 negative
- BClaudin-4 and TTF-1 positive, calretinin negative
- CCK5/6 negative, BerEP4 and MOC-31 positive
- DCalretinin and WT1 positive, claudin-4 negative
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Calretinin and WT1 positive, claudin-4 negative
Mesothelioma is typically positive for calretinin, WT1, CK5/6 and D2-40 and negative for epithelial markers such as claudin-4, BerEP4, MOC-31 and TTF-1. The other combinations describe a carcinoma profile.
Reference: Husain AN et al. Guidelines for Pathologic Diagnosis of Mesothelioma, Arch Pathol Lab Med 2018
Last reviewed September 2026
About these questions: every question is original, written to the published blueprint, with a rationale and a reference. No recalled or leaked exam content is used. How we write our questions.
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