DHA Clinical Pathology exam questions
Chemical pathology, haematopathology, transfusion, microbiology and QC.
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DHA Clinical Pathology exam at a glance
- Exam code
- CPA5541
- Questions
- 150 MCQs
- Duration
- 3 hours
- Pass mark
- 65%
- Fee per attempt
- USD 280 (about AED 1,030)
- Result
- Pass or fail, no score
From the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. Delivered by Prometric; three attempts in total across the UAE authorities. Full DHA exam guide.
Try two questions from this bank
Original questions from the bank - pick an answer to see the rationale and reference.
Which condition is most likely to give a falsely low HbA1c relative to average glucose?
Choose an answer to see the rationale.
A confused patient has measured osmolality 320 mmol/kg, sodium 140 mmol/L, glucose 5 mmol/L and urea 5 mmol/L. Using 2Na + glucose + urea, what is the osmolal gap?
Choose an answer to see the rationale.
Not sure where you stand? Sit 12 of these questions free, timed at real exam pace, and see which domains you are weakest in.
Take the free mock exam →Liked those? The full bank has 450 questions at this standard - every one with a rationale and a reference.
Get the full bank - AED 289What's inside
- ✓3 full-length papers (~150 Q each)
- ✓450 questions, no overlap between papers
- ✓Four options, one unambiguous best answer
- ✓A full rationale on every question
- ✓A real guideline or textbook reference
- ✓Every sub-topic in the published blueprint
The Clinical Pathology exam in every GCC country
| Regulator | Exam | Format | Pass mark | Fee per attempt | Practise |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| DHA Dubai | Specialist Clinical Pathology (CPA5541) | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | USD 280 (about AED 1,030) | DHA questions → |
| DOH Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra | DOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Written + oral/OSCE | Pass / fail only | Not published | DOH questions → |
| MOHAP Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah | MOHAP licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based | Not published | Not published | MOHAP questions → |
| SHA Emirate of Sharjah | SHA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Set at assessment | Not published | Not published | SHA questions → |
| SCFHS Kingdom of Saudi Arabia | SCFHS licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 200 MCQs, 240 min | 500-560 of 800 | Not published | SCFHS questions → |
| QCHP State of Qatar | Specialist Clinical Pathology | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | Not published | QCHP questions → |
| NHRA Kingdom of Bahrain | NHRA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Prometric CBT | Not published | Not published | NHRA questions → |
| OMSB Sultanate of Oman | OMSB licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based OC exam | Not published | Not published | OMSB questions → |
| Kuwait MOH State of Kuwait | Kuwait MOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 150 MCQs, 170 min | 60-70% | Not published | Kuwait MOH questions → |
exact exam published for Clinical Pathology
From each regulator's own exam pages; anything a regulator does not publish says so. Assessment mode also depends on your licence title, so confirm your route on your eligibility notice.
Try 15 free Clinical Pathology questions with answersDifferent from the samples on this page - each with a full explanationStart →What the Clinical Pathology exam covers
The published blueprint for this exam breaks into 8 domains and 52 testable sub-topics. Our bank covers every one of them - here is the full map, so you can see exactly what you are expected to know.
Clinical Chemistry~20%8 topics
- Acid-base and electrolytes: anion gap, osmolal gap, delta ratio
- Analytical interferences: hemolysis, lipemia, icterus, EDTA contamination
- Immunoassay pitfalls: hook effect, heterophile antibodies, biotin, macro-analytes
- Cardiac biomarkers: high-sensitivity troponin and natriuretic peptides
- Liver and pancreatic enzymes: patterns of injury, macroamylasemia
- Diabetes testing: glucose, HbA1c limitations, ketones
- Endocrine testing: thyroid, adrenal and pituitary function
- Therapeutic drug monitoring and toxicology screens
Hematology and Hematopathology~20%9 topics
- Red cell disorders: microcytic, macrocytic and hemolytic anemias
- Hemoglobinopathies and thalassemia: HPLC and HbA2 interpretation
- Peripheral smear morphology and CBC analyzer artifacts
- Acute leukemias: WHO/ICC classification, flow cytometry, APL emergency
- Myeloproliferative neoplasms and myelodysplastic syndromes
- Mature B- and T-cell lymphomas: immunophenotype and genetics
- Hodgkin lymphoma: classic versus nodular lymphocyte predominant
- Plasma cell neoplasms: myeloma-defining events, free light chains
- Bone marrow aspirate and trephine interpretation
Transfusion Medicine~15%7 topics
- ABO and RhD typing, discrepancies and resolution
- Antibody screening, identification and clinically significant antibodies
- Blood components: indications, storage and special processing
- Acute transfusion reactions: hemolytic, febrile, allergic, TRALI, TACO
- Delayed hemolytic and serologic reactions; direct antiglobulin test
- Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn; RhD immunoglobulin dosing
- Massive transfusion and patient blood management
Clinical Microbiology~12%6 topics
- Gram stain and identification of common bacterial pathogens
- Blood culture interpretation and contamination
- Antimicrobial susceptibility testing and resistance mechanisms
- Carbapenemase and ESBL detection methods
- Clostridioides difficile and enteric pathogen testing
- Mycobacteria, fungi and parasites: laboratory diagnosis
Immunology and Serology~8%5 topics
- Autoantibody testing: ANA patterns, anti-dsDNA, ENA panels
- Serum and urine protein electrophoresis, immunofixation
- Complement and immunodeficiency investigation
- Serologic diagnosis of syphilis, hepatitis and HIV
- Assay artifacts: prozone and window periods
Hemostasis and Thrombosis~10%6 topics
- PT, aPTT, thrombin time and fibrinogen interpretation
- Mixing studies: factor deficiency versus inhibitor
- Lupus anticoagulant and antiphospholipid testing
- Anticoagulant monitoring: warfarin, heparin, LMWH, DOACs
- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia: scoring and laboratory tests
- von Willebrand disease and platelet function testing
Molecular Diagnostics and Cytogenetics~7%5 topics
- PCR, quantitative PCR and BCR::ABL1 monitoring on the International Scale
- FISH and karyotype in hematologic malignancy
- Driver mutations in MPN: JAK2, CALR, MPL
- Next-generation sequencing basics and variant reporting
- Inherited thrombophilia and pharmacogenetic testing
Laboratory Management, Quality and Safety~8%6 topics
- Internal quality control: Westgard rules, Levey-Jennings charts
- External quality assessment and proficiency testing
- Method validation, sigma metrics and total allowable error
- Pre-analytical errors: order of draw, labelling, specimen rejection
- Critical value reporting and turnaround time
- ISO 15189 accreditation and biosafety in the laboratory
6 worked Clinical Pathology practice questions
Original exam-style questions from the bank, spread across the blueprint domains. They are not real or recalled exam questions. Try each one, then open the answer for the rationale and reference. None of them appear in the free mock exam, so reading them will not spoil it.
Question 1 · Clinical Chemistry
A man has a 4 cm pituitary macroadenoma with visual field loss. Serum prolactin by a one-step sandwich immunoassay is only 85 µg/L. What is the most appropriate laboratory action?
- AScreen for macroprolactin by PEG precipitation
- BRepeat prolactin after a 20-minute rest
- CRepeat prolactin on a serially diluted sample
- DReport as stalk effect from a non-functioning adenoma
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Repeat prolactin on a serially diluted sample
Extremely high antigen concentrations can saturate both capture and detection antibodies in one-step sandwich assays, giving a falsely low result (high-dose hook effect); dilution reveals the true value. Macroprolactin causes falsely high, not falsely low, prolactin, so PEG precipitation does not address this problem.
Reference: Henry's Clinical Diagnosis and Management by Laboratory Methods, 24th ed.
Question 2 · Clinical Microbiology
A blood culture grows Gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase positive and coagulase positive. What is the organism?
- AStaphylococcus aureus
- BStaphylococcus epidermidis
- CStreptococcus pyogenes
- DEnterococcus faecalis
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Staphylococcus aureus
Coagulase production distinguishes S. aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci such as S. epidermidis. Streptococci and enterococci are catalase negative and grow in chains or pairs.
Reference: Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology, 15th ed.
Question 3 · Hematology and Hematopathology
A 30-year-old woman has confusion, platelets 15 x 10^9/L, hemoglobin 80 g/L, many schistocytes, raised LDH and a normal PT and aPTT. Which test best confirms the suspected diagnosis?
- ADirect antiglobulin test
- BFibrinogen and D-dimer
- CHemoglobin electrophoresis
- DADAMTS13 activity
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. ADAMTS13 activity
Microangiopathic hemolysis with severe thrombocytopenia and normal clotting suggests TTP, confirmed by ADAMTS13 activity below 10%. The DAT is useful for immune hemolysis but is negative in TTP and would not confirm it.
Reference: ISTH Guideline for the Diagnosis of TTP 2020
Question 4 · Hematology and Hematopathology
A mediastinal mass biopsy shows large binucleate cells in a mixed inflammatory background. Which immunophenotype of these cells supports classic Hodgkin lymphoma?
- ACD30+, CD15+, CD45-, weak PAX5
- BCD20+, CD45+, CD15-, CD30-
- CCD3+, CD30+, ALK+, PAX5-
- DCD20+, CD10+, BCL6+, CD30-
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. CD30+, CD15+, CD45-, weak PAX5
Hodgkin Reed-Sternberg cells are typically CD30 and CD15 positive, CD45 negative and weakly PAX5 positive. Strong CD20 with CD45 and absent CD15/CD30 fits nodular lymphocyte predominant B-cell lymphoma instead.
Reference: WHO Classification of Haematolymphoid Tumours, 5th ed.
Question 5 · Hemostasis and Thrombosis
Which pair of tests do international guidelines recommend for lupus anticoagulant detection?
- AdRVVT and an LA-sensitive aPTT
- BPT and thrombin time
- CAnti-cardiolipin and anti-beta-2 glycoprotein I
- DFibrinogen and D-dimer
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. dRVVT and an LA-sensitive aPTT
ISTH guidance recommends two tests based on different principles, typically dilute Russell viper venom time and an LA-sensitive aPTT, each with screen, mix and confirm steps. Anticardiolipin and anti-beta-2 GPI are solid-phase antibody assays, not clotting tests for LA.
Reference: ISTH SSC Guidance on Lupus Anticoagulant Detection 2020
Question 6 · Immunology and Serology
A man has a generalised rash on palms and soles and condylomata lata. The undiluted RPR is non-reactive but treponemal EIA is positive. What is the best next step?
- AReport latent treated syphilis
- BRepeat the treponemal test in 6 weeks
- CRepeat the RPR on diluted serum
- DRequest a TPPA as the final test
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Repeat the RPR on diluted serum
Very high antibody levels in secondary syphilis can prevent flocculation (prozone), giving a false-negative undiluted RPR; dilution reveals a high titre. Calling it treated syphilis ignores the obvious active clinical features.
Reference: CDC Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines 2021
Last reviewed September 2026
About these questions: every question is original, written to the published blueprint, with a rationale and a reference. No recalled or leaked exam content is used. How we write our questions.
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