DHA Medical Microbiology exam questions
Bacteriology, virology, mycology, infection control and stewardship.
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DHA Medical Microbiology exam at a glance
- Exam code
- MIC5251
- Questions
- 150 MCQs
- Duration
- 3 hours
- Pass mark
- 65%
- Fee per attempt
- USD 280 (about AED 1,030)
- Result
- Pass or fail, no score
From the DHA CBT Guideline, Sep 2026. Delivered by Prometric; three attempts in total across the UAE authorities. Full DHA exam guide.
Try two questions from this bank
Original questions from the bank - pick an answer to see the rationale and reference.
A blood culture from an emergency patient flags positive and Gram stain shows Gram-negative rods. What should the laboratory do?
Choose an answer to see the rationale.
Oxidase-positive Gram-negative diplococci grow on chocolate agar from a CSF sample. Which carbohydrate utilisation pattern identifies Neisseria meningitidis?
Choose an answer to see the rationale.
Not sure where you stand? Sit 12 of these questions free, timed at real exam pace, and see which domains you are weakest in.
Take the free mock exam →Liked those? The full bank has 450 questions at this standard - every one with a rationale and a reference.
Get the full bank - AED 289What's inside
- ✓3 full-length papers (~150 Q each)
- ✓450 questions, no overlap between papers
- ✓Four options, one unambiguous best answer
- ✓A full rationale on every question
- ✓A real guideline or textbook reference
- ✓Every sub-topic in the published blueprint
The Medical Microbiology exam in every GCC country
| Regulator | Exam | Format | Pass mark | Fee per attempt | Practise |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| DHA Dubai | Specialist Medical Microbiology (MIC5251) | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | USD 280 (about AED 1,030) | DHA questions → |
| DOH Abu Dhabi, Al Ain and Al Dhafra | DOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Written + oral/OSCE | Pass / fail only | Not published | DOH questions → |
| MOHAP Northern Emirates - Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah | MOHAP licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based | Not published | Not published | MOHAP questions → |
| SHA Emirate of Sharjah | SHA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Set at assessment | Not published | Not published | SHA questions → |
| SCFHS Kingdom of Saudi Arabia | SCFHS licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 200 MCQs, 240 min | 500-560 of 800 | Not published | SCFHS questions → |
| QCHP State of Qatar | Specialist Medical Microbiology | 150 MCQs in 3 hours | 65% | Not published | QCHP questions → |
| NHRA Kingdom of Bahrain | NHRA licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Prometric CBT | Not published | Not published | NHRA questions → |
| OMSB Sultanate of Oman | OMSB licensing exam Regulator-wide format | Computer-based OC exam | Not published | Not published | OMSB questions → |
| Kuwait MOH State of Kuwait | Kuwait MOH licensing exam Regulator-wide format | 150 MCQs, 170 min | 60-70% | Not published | Kuwait MOH questions → |
exact exam published for Medical Microbiology
From each regulator's own exam pages; anything a regulator does not publish says so. Assessment mode also depends on your licence title, so confirm your route on your eligibility notice.
Try 15 free Medical Microbiology questions with answersDifferent from the samples on this page - each with a full explanationStart →What the Medical Microbiology exam covers
The published blueprint for this exam breaks into 9 domains and 63 testable sub-topics. Our bank covers every one of them - here is the full map, so you can see exactly what you are expected to know.
Laboratory Methods and Specimen Management~12%7 topics
- Specimen collection, transport and rejection criteria (sputum quality, swabs vs tissue)
- Blood culture: volume, number of sets, contaminants and time to positivity
- Gram, acid-fast and special stains: principles and interpretation
- Culture media: selective, differential and enrichment media
- Biochemical identification: catalase, coagulase, oxidase, optochin, bile solubility
- MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry: principles, limitations and database issues
- CSF, urine and sterile fluid processing and critical result reporting
Clinical Bacteriology~20%9 topics
- Staphylococci and streptococci: identification and virulence factors
- Enterococci, Listeria and other Gram-positive bacilli
- Neisseria, Haemophilus and Moraxella
- Enterobacterales: Salmonella, Shigella, Shiga toxin-producing E. coli
- Non-fermenting Gram-negative bacilli: Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas
- Vibrio, Campylobacter and Helicobacter
- Anaerobes and Clostridioides difficile diagnostic algorithms
- Fastidious and zoonotic organisms: Brucella, Legionella, Bordetella
- Spirochaetes and atypical bacteria: Treponema, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistance~15%8 topics
- Disk diffusion, broth microdilution and gradient methods
- CLSI and EUCAST breakpoints and susceptibility categories
- MRSA detection: cefoxitin surrogate, mecA, PBP2a
- Inducible clindamycin resistance (D-test) and VRE
- ESBL and AmpC beta-lactamases: detection and reporting
- Carbapenemases: KPC, OXA-48, NDM; mCIM/eCIM and molecular detection
- Colistin and other last-line agent testing
- Cascade reporting and antimicrobial stewardship
Mycobacteriology~7%6 topics
- Acid-fast staining and fluorescent microscopy
- Specimen decontamination, liquid and solid culture
- Nucleic acid amplification tests and rifampicin resistance detection
- Drug-resistant tuberculosis: MDR and XDR definitions
- Latent TB testing: IGRA and tuberculin skin test
- Non-tuberculous mycobacteria: identification and clinical significance
Medical Mycology~8%6 topics
- Yeasts: Candida species identification and Candida auris
- Cryptococcus: microscopy, antigen testing and culture
- Moulds: Aspergillus vs Mucorales morphology
- Dermatophytes and superficial mycoses
- Fungal biomarkers: galactomannan and beta-D-glucan
- Antifungal susceptibility testing and intrinsic resistance
Parasitology~8%6 topics
- Malaria: blood film diagnosis, species identification and parasitaemia
- Leishmaniasis: cutaneous and visceral disease diagnosis
- Intestinal protozoa: Giardia, Entamoeba, Cryptosporidium
- Helminths: Strongyloides hyperinfection, Schistosoma, Echinococcus
- Stool ova and parasite examination, concentration and antigen tests
- Blood and tissue parasites: Toxoplasma serology
Virology and Molecular Diagnostics~12%8 topics
- Hepatitis B and C serology and viral load interpretation
- HIV testing algorithms and viral load monitoring
- Respiratory viruses: influenza, SARS-CoV-2, MERS-CoV specimen selection
- CMV and EBV in transplant recipients
- Congenital and perinatal infections: rubella, CMV, HSV
- PCR principles: cycle threshold, inhibition, contamination control
- Multiplex syndromic panels and sequencing applications
- Serology principles: IgM, IgG, avidity and seroconversion
Infection Prevention, Control and Epidemiology~10%7 topics
- Standard, contact, droplet and airborne precautions
- Hand hygiene and the WHO five moments
- Multidrug-resistant organism screening and cohorting
- Outbreak investigation and molecular typing (PFGE, WGS)
- Healthcare-associated infection surveillance definitions
- Clostridioides difficile and spore control
- Notifiable diseases and public health reporting
Biosafety, Quality Management and Ethics~8%6 topics
- Biosafety levels and biological safety cabinets
- Handling of high-risk organisms: Brucella, Francisella, M. tuberculosis
- Laboratory-acquired infection prevention and exposure management
- Quality control of media, stains and reagents; reference strains
- Accreditation, proficiency testing and method verification
- Result confidentiality, critical value communication and professional ethics
6 worked Medical Microbiology practice questions
Original exam-style questions from the bank, spread across the blueprint domains. They are not real or recalled exam questions. Try each one, then open the answer for the rationale and reference. None of them appear in the free mock exam, so reading them will not spoil it.
Question 1 · Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing and Resistance
A meropenem-resistant Enterobacter cloacae isolate is positive by the modified carbapenem inactivation method. In the parallel EDTA-modified test, the meropenem zone is 7 mm larger than in the mCIM. Which enzyme class is most likely present?
- ASerine carbapenemase such as KPC
- BMetallo-beta-lactamase such as NDM
- COXA-48-like carbapenemase
- DPlasmid-mediated AmpC
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Metallo-beta-lactamase such as NDM
EDTA chelates zinc and inhibits metallo-beta-lactamases, so a zone increase of 5 mm or more in the eCIM indicates an MBL such as NDM, VIM or IMP. KPC and OXA-48 are serine enzymes not inhibited by EDTA, and AmpC alone does not give a positive mCIM.
Reference: CLSI M100 Performance Standards for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
Question 2 · Clinical Bacteriology
A vaginal-rectal screening culture at 36 weeks grows a catalase-negative, beta-haemolytic streptococcus. Which test pair supports Streptococcus agalactiae?
- ABile esculin positive and 6.5% NaCl growth
- BPYR positive and bacitracin susceptible
- COptochin susceptible and bile soluble
- DCAMP positive and hippurate positive
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. CAMP positive and hippurate positive
Group B streptococci give a positive CAMP reaction and hydrolyse hippurate. PYR positivity with bacitracin susceptibility identifies group A, and bile esculin with salt tolerance identifies enterococci.
Reference: Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology, 15th ed.
Question 3 · Clinical Bacteriology
A traveller has had fever, headache and relative bradycardia for 5 days. Typhoid fever is suspected. Which test is the most useful initial diagnostic investigation?
- ABlood culture
- BStool culture
- CWidal agglutination test
- DUrine culture
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Blood culture
Blood culture has its highest yield in the first week of enteric fever and allows susceptibility testing. Stool and urine cultures become positive later, and the Widal test has poor sensitivity and specificity.
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.
Question 4 · Clinical Bacteriology
A two-step Clostridioides difficile algorithm on an unformed stool gives a positive glutamate dehydrogenase antigen and a negative toxin A/B immunoassay. What is the most appropriate next step?
- AReport as C. difficile infection
- BReport as negative for C. difficile
- CRepeat the toxin immunoassay in 24 hours
- DArbitrate with a toxin gene NAAT
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Arbitrate with a toxin gene NAAT
Discordant GDH-positive, toxin-negative results are resolved by a nucleic acid amplification test for the toxin gene, interpreted with clinical findings. Repeat toxin testing within 7 days is discouraged, and GDH alone cannot separate toxigenic from non-toxigenic strains.
Reference: IDSA/SHEA Clinical Practice Guidelines for Clostridioides difficile Infection 2017
Question 5 · Clinical Bacteriology
A man with severe pneumonia linked to a hotel cooling tower has a negative Legionella urinary antigen test. Why should lower respiratory culture on buffered charcoal yeast extract agar still be sent?
- AUrinary antigen is detectable only after 6 weeks
- BThe antigen test mainly detects L. pneumophila serogroup 1
- CCulture is faster than the antigen test
- DUrinary antigen cross-reacts with pneumococcus
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The antigen test mainly detects L. pneumophila serogroup 1
Urinary antigen tests detect mainly L. pneumophila serogroup 1, so other serogroups and species are missed. Culture on BCYE detects all Legionella species and allows typing for outbreak investigation.
Reference: Manual of Clinical Microbiology, 12th ed.
Question 6 · Medical Mycology
A yeast from an ICU patient's blood culture is identified as Candida haemulonii by a biochemical identification system and is fluconazole resistant. What is the most appropriate next step?
- AConfirm by MALDI-TOF with an updated database
- BReport the identification as C. haemulonii
- CRepeat the same biochemical panel
- DPerform a germ tube test to confirm
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Confirm by MALDI-TOF with an updated database
Candida auris is commonly misidentified as C. haemulonii by biochemical systems, so confirmation by MALDI-TOF with an updated library or sequencing is needed, with prompt infection control notification. The germ tube test does not identify C. auris.
Reference: CDC Identification of Candida auris guidance
Last reviewed September 2026
About these questions: every question is original, written to the published blueprint, with a rationale and a reference. No recalled or leaked exam content is used. How we write our questions.
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